Download Careers360 App
CLAT Previous Year Question Papers PDF - Download PYQ Answer Keys & Sample Paper

CLAT Previous Year Question Papers PDF - Download PYQ Answer Keys & Sample Paper

Edited By Ritika Jonwal | Updated on Jul 24, 2025 11:48 AM IST | #CLAT
Upcoming Event
CLAT  Application Date : 01 Aug' 2025 - 31 Oct' 2025
Switch toEnglishEnglish Icon HindiHindi Icon

The more you sweat in practice, the less you bleed in battle! This saying perfectly sums up the importance of practising with the real exam papers before stepping into the actual CLAT 2026 exam hall. If you’re serious about cracking the Common Law Admission Test and securing a seat at a top National Law University, solving previous year question papers is not negotiable. These papers not only help you understand the exam pattern and CLAT Exam pattern but also boost your confidence and improve your time management skills

This Story also Contains
  1. CLAT Previous Year Question Papers PDF Download
  2. How to download CLAT PYQ?
  3. Benefits of solving CLAT previous year question papers
  4. CLAT Sample Papers 2026
  5. CLAT PG Question & Answers 2026
  6. CLAT 2026 Preparation Tips
CLAT Previous Year Question Papers PDF - Download PYQ Answer Keys & Sample Paper
CLAT Previous Year Question Papers PDF - Download PYQ Answer Keys & Sample Paper

In this article, you can easily download CLAT Previous Year Question Papers in PDF Format along with detailed answer keys and sample papers. Get ready to strengthen your preparation strategy and take one big step closer to your dream law school!

CLAT Previous Year Question Papers PDF Download

How to download CLAT PYQ?

The CLAT previous year question paper with answer PDF download can be completed by following the steps below:

  • Click on the CLAT previous year paper link that you want to download.

  • Students will be redirected to the eBook store of Careers360.

  • If you are a registered user, log in with your credentials on the login panel that will appear on the screen.

  • New users will be required to complete their registration by entering basic details like name, mobile number, email etc.

  • Upon completing the registration, candidates will be directed to the CLAT question paper PDF download.

  • Next, click on the “Download” button.

  • The CLAT previous year question paper PDF will be sent to the candidate's registered email address.

Benefits of solving CLAT previous year question papers

Here are some of the advantages of solving CLAT PYQ papers:

  • Solving previous year CLAT exam papers will boost candidates' confidence in their preparations. The more CLAT previous year papers applicants solve, the more assured they will feel about their preparations.

    The CLAT question papers from past years will provide applicants with a comprehensive overview of the CLAT 2026 syllabus. Students will also become acquainted with the CLAT 2026 exam pattern.

  • Candidates can test their knowledge and preparations through these CLAT PYQ papers. Students are advised to carefully analyse their performance after solving these papers.

  • Students can identify their weak areas after completing the previous year question papers of CLAT. Candidates need to identify the areas and topics from the incorrectly answered questions.

  • A good way to develop time management skills and accuracy is by practising the CLAT previous year papers PDF. Students will get an idea of the time they take to finish the question papers.

UPES Integrated LLB Admissions 2025

Ranked #28 amongst Institutions in India by NIRF | Ranked #1 in India for Academic Reputation by QS Rankings | 16.6 LPA Highest CTC | Last Date to Apply: 30th July | Limited seats available in select program

ICFAI-LAW School BA-LLB / BBA-LLB Admissions 2025

Ranked 1 st among Top Law Schools of super Excellence in India - GHRDC | NAAC A+ Accredited | #36 by NIRF

CLAT Sample Papers 2026

Along with the question papers of previous sessions, candidates can also take the help of the CLAT sample papers for previous years to prepare for the exam. The Consortium of NLUs releases a set of sample papers of CLAT to help candidates in their preparation. The download links of CLAT sample papers have been given below:

CLAT Sample Papers for Previous Years

Download link

PDF

CLAT 2025 Sample Paper

Download PDF

CLAT 2017 Sample Paper

Download PDF

CLAT 2015 Sample Paper

Download PDF

CLAT PG Question Paper 2015

Download PDF

CLAT 2014 Sample Paper

Download PDF

CLAT 2013 Sample Paper

Download PDF

CLAT 2012 Sample Paper

Download PDF

CLAT 2011 Sample Paper

Download PDF

CLAT 2010 Sample Paper

Download PDF

CLAT 2009 Sample Paper

Download PDF

CLAT PG Question & Answers 2026

The Aspirants preparing for the CLAT PG 2026 Exam should be well aware of the types of questions asked in the CLAT PG 2026 Exam. Below are the sample questions on CLAT PG 2026 Exam.

Passage 1:

In April 2025, the Supreme Court of India delivered a landmark judgment in the case of State of Tamil Nadu v. Governor of Tamil Nadu. The Court ruled that the Governor cannot exercise an absolute or pocket veto over legislation duly passed by the State Legislature. It emphasized that once the Governor withholds assent and the legislature re-passes the bill, the Governor is constitutionally obligated to grant assent. This decision reinforced the principle of parliamentary democracy and clarified the Governor's role under Articles 200 and 201 of the Constitution.

In another significant ruling, the Supreme Court in May 2025 addressed the issue of permanent alimony in Seperation cases. The Court revised the alimony amount awarded to a Seperated wife, increasing it from ₹20,000 to ₹50,000 per month, with a 5% increment every two years. This decision highlighted the Court's commitment to ensuring fair financial support for Seperated spouses, considering the husband's income and the wife's needs.

Additionally, the Court's judgment in the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025 case in April 2025 brought attention to the legal status of waqf properties. The Court directed that no waqf property—whether registered, unregistered, or waqf by user—be denotified, altered, or interfered with until the next hearing, pending the government's response to petitions challenging the Act's constitutional validity.

Questions:

Q1: Which constitutional articles were central to the Supreme Court's judgment in the State of Tamil Nadu v. Governor of Tamil Nadu case?

A) Articles 200 and 201

B) Articles 200 and 202

C) Articles 201 and 202

D) Articles 200 and 203

Correct Answer: A) Articles 200 and 201

Explanation: The Supreme Court's judgment in this case focused on the Governor's powers under Articles 200 and 201 of the Constitution, clarifying the process of assent to bills passed by the State Legislature.

Q2: What was the primary issue addressed in the Supreme Court's May 2025 ruling regarding permanent alimony?

A) Increase in alimony amount

B) Eligibility for alimony

C) Duration of alimony payments

D) Taxability of alimony

Correct Answer: A) Increase in alimony amount

Explanation: The Supreme Court revised the permanent alimony amount awarded to a divorced wife, increasing it from ₹20,000 to ₹50,000 per month, with a 5% increment every two years, considering the husband's income and the wife's needs.

Q3: In the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025 case, what did the Supreme Court direct regarding waqf properties?

A) Immediate denotification of all waqf properties

B) No interference with waqf properties until the next hearing

C) Transfer of waqf properties to private entities

D) Legalization of all unregistered waqf properties

Correct Answer: B) No interference with waqf properties until the next hearing

Explanation: The Supreme Court directed that no waqf property—whether registered, unregistered, or waqf by user—be denotified, altered, or interfered with until the next hearing, pending the government's response to petitions challenging the Act's constitutional validity.

Q4: Which of the following was a key aspect of the Supreme Court's ruling in the State of Tamil Nadu v. Governor of Tamil Nadu case?

A) The Governor has an absolute veto over state legislation

B) The Governor must grant assent to re-passed bills

C) The President can withhold assent to state bills

D) The State Legislature can override the Governor's veto

Correct Answer: B) The Governor must grant assent to re-passed bills

Explanation: The Supreme Court ruled that once the Governor withholds assent and the State Legislature re-passes the bill, the Governor is constitutionally obligated to grant assent, reinforcing the principle of parliamentary democracy.

Q5: What was the outcome of the Supreme Court's judgment regarding the permanent alimony case in May 2025?

A) Alimony amount reduced to ₹20,000 per month

B) Alimony amount increased to ₹50,000 per month with a 5% increment every two years

C) Alimony amount fixed at ₹30,000 per month

D) No change in the alimony amount

Correct Answer: B) Alimony amount increased to ₹50,000 per month with a 5% increment every two years

Explanation: The Supreme Court revised the permanent alimony amount awarded to a divorced wife, increasing it from ₹20,000 to ₹50,000 per month, with a 5% increment every two years, considering the husband's income and the wife's needs.

Passage 2:

The Supreme Court of India recently delivered a landmark judgment in the case of XYZ v. Union of India (2025), which primarily focused on the constitutional validity of the recently enacted "Privacy Amendment Act" (2024). The Act aims to tighten data privacy laws in India, addressing concerns about the collection, storage, and sharing of personal data by private corporations and government agencies. The petitioners argued that the law infringes upon fundamental rights guaranteed under Articles 14 (Right to Equality), 19 (Freedom of Speech and Expression), and 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty) of the Constitution. However, the government contended that the law was necessary to protect citizens' privacy and ensure data security in the digital age.

In its judgment, the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of the Privacy Amendment Act, stating that the law strikes a reasonable balance between the protection of individual rights and the state's duty to ensure national security and data protection. The Court also laid down guidelines for the implementation of the law, emphasizing the need for greater transparency and accountability in the handling of personal data.

This judgment has had significant implications for data privacy laws in India, especially concerning the regulatory powers of the government and private entities in managing citizens' personal information. The ruling has been hailed as a progressive step towards enhancing privacy protections, but it has also sparked debates about the extent of government surveillance and the protection of civil liberties.

Questions:

6. What was the main subject of the XYZ v. Union of India (2025) case?

A) Validity of the Sedition Law

B) Data privacy laws and government surveillance

C) Right to Free Speech

D) Protection of Fundamental Rights of Citizens

Correct Answer: B) Data privacy laws and government surveillance

Explanation: The case primarily dealt with the constitutional validity of the "Privacy Amendment Act" (2024), which focuses on data privacy and government surveillance.

7. Which Articles of the Constitution were argued to be infringed by the Privacy Amendment Act?

A) Article 14, 19, and 21

B) Article 32, 36, and 37

C) Article 15, 16, and 17

D) Article 20, 21, and 22

Correct Answer: A) Article 14, 19, and 21

Explanation: The petitioners argued that the Privacy Amendment Act infringed upon Articles 14 (Right to Equality), 19 (Freedom of Speech and Expression), and 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty).

8. What was the Supreme Court's conclusion regarding the Privacy Amendment Act?

A) It was unconstitutional.

B) It was partially unconstitutional.

C) It was constitutionally valid.

D) It required further examination.

Correct Answer: C) It was constitutionally valid.

Explanation: The Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of the Privacy Amendment Act, stating that it strikes a balance between individual rights and state interests.

9. What did the Court emphasize regarding the implementation of the Privacy Amendment Act?

A) No guidelines were required.

B) Complete freedom in data collection by the government.

C) Greater transparency and accountability in data handling.

D) Increased powers for private corporations.

Correct Answer: C) Greater transparency and accountability in data handling.

Explanation: The Court laid down guidelines emphasizing transparency and accountability in the handling of personal data under the Privacy Amendment Act.

10. What has been the impact of the XYZ v. Union of India judgment?

A) It has significantly weakened data privacy laws in India.

B) It has sparked debates about government surveillance and civil liberties.

C) It has resulted in the complete repeal of the Privacy Amendment Act.

D) It has been ignored by legal experts and practitioners.

Correct Answer: B) It has sparked debates about government surveillance and civil liberties.

Explanation: The judgment has sparked debates about the balance between privacy protection and government surveillance, with concerns about civil liberties in the digital age.

Passage 3:

The judiciary has been playing an active role in upholding the constitutional rights of individuals and ensuring that the democratic framework of India is maintained. Recently, the Supreme Court of India has delivered some landmark judgments, particularly in areas concerning civil liberties, freedom of expression, and the right to privacy.

In one of its most significant judgments, the Supreme Court ruled that the right to privacy is an intrinsic part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 of the Constitution. This decision emphasized the importance of protecting individuals from arbitrary state actions and affirmed the sanctity of personal data and online privacy. Furthermore, the Court directed the government to come up with strict data protection laws to safeguard citizens’ information.

In another pivotal case, the Court reaffirmed its position on the decriminalization of homosexuality, holding that the law criminalizing consensual same-sex relations between adults was discriminatory and violative of the fundamental rights guaranteed under Articles 14, 15, and 21 of the Constitution. This decision was hailed as a progressive step towards the protection of LGBTQ+ rights in India.

These judgments highlight the evolving nature of the Indian judiciary, which continues to interpret the Constitution in a dynamic manner, ensuring that justice is delivered in line with contemporary issues affecting citizens.

Questions:

11. What is the primary focus of the recent Supreme Court judgment regarding privacy?

A) Protection of online content

B) Decriminalization of data theft

C) Right to privacy as a part of Article 21

D) Freedom of speech

Correct Answer: C) Right to privacy as a part of Article 21

Explanation: The Supreme Court held that the right to privacy is an intrinsic part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 of the Constitution, emphasizing the protection of personal data and online privacy.

12. Which article of the Constitution was cited in the Supreme Court’s ruling on the decriminalization of homosexuality?

A) Article 32

B) Article 21

C) Article 15

D) Article 14

Correct Answer: B) Article 21

Explanation: The Supreme Court ruled that the law criminalizing consensual same-sex relations between adults violated the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21.

13. What did the Supreme Court direct the government to do after the privacy judgment?

A) Enact stricter freedom of speech laws

B) Create data protection laws

C) Implement censorship measures for online content

D) Form a committee to review data breaches

Correct Answer: B) Create data protection laws

Explanation: The Court directed the government to enact strict data protection laws to safeguard citizens’ information following its landmark privacy judgment.

14. In which area did the Supreme Court recently deliver a landmark judgment regarding the rights of the LGBTQ+ community?

A) Right to marry

B) Decriminalization of homosexuality

C) Right to adoption

D) Right to express gender identity

Correct Answer: B) Decriminalization of homosexuality

Explanation: The Supreme Court’s ruling on decriminalizing homosexuality was a significant step toward protecting LGBTQ+ rights by declaring the law criminalizing consensual same-sex relations unconstitutional.

15. Which of the following best describes the Supreme Court’s role as seen in the passage?

A) Upholding the principles of national security

B) Interpreting the Constitution in a dynamic manner

C) Limiting the scope of fundamental rights

D) Increasing government power

Correct Answer: B) Interpreting the Constitution in a dynamic manner

Explanation: The passage highlights the judiciary's evolving role in interpreting the Constitution to address contemporary issues affecting citizens' rights.

16. Which constitutional right was at the heart of the Supreme Court's ruling on the right to privacy?

A) Right to religion

B) Right to education

C) Right to life and personal liberty

D) Right to freedom of assembly

Correct Answer: C) Right to life and personal liberty

Explanation: The Supreme Court emphasized that the right to privacy is an essential part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21.

17. What did the Supreme Court’s judgment on the decriminalization of homosexuality aim to protect?

A) National security

B) Civil liberties and equality

C) Religious freedoms

D) Political freedom

Correct Answer: B) Civil liberties and equality

Explanation: The judgment aimed to protect the civil liberties of LGBTQ+ individuals and uphold equality under Articles 14, 15, and 21 of the Constitution.

18. How has the Indian judiciary evolved, according to the passage?

A) By limiting individual freedoms

B) By interpreting the Constitution in a static manner

C) By adapting its interpretation of the Constitution to contemporary issues

D) By focusing only on national security issues

Correct Answer: C) By adapting its interpretation of the Constitution to contemporary issues

Explanation: The passage notes that the judiciary has dynamically interpreted the Constitution, addressing contemporary issues like privacy and LGBTQ+ rights.

19. What was the significance of the Supreme Court’s ruling on privacy and personal data protection?

A) It restricted the government’s power over personal information

B) It allowed for mass surveillance

C) It led to the formation of data protection laws

D) It legalized online data theft

Correct Answer: C) It led to the formation of data protection laws

Explanation: The Court’s judgment on privacy led to a directive for the government to introduce strict data protection laws to secure personal data.

20. What aspect of the law did the Supreme Court address in relation to the LGBTQ+ community?

A) Right to employment

B) Discrimination in healthcare

C) Criminalization of consensual same-sex relations

D) Right to marry

Correct Answer: C) Criminalization of consensual same-sex relations

Explanation: The Supreme Court’s ruling addressed the decriminalization of consensual same-sex relations, asserting that such laws were discriminatory and violated constitutional rights.

CLAT 2026 Preparation Tips

Here are some preparation tips to ace the CLAT exam:

  • Candidates should draft a clear preparation strategy before starting their preparations. Students must figure out what topics they want to attempt first or how are they going to approach each part of their CLAT preparation.

  • Students must give special attention to the revision of subjects and topics. It is important that students recollect whatever they have learned during the course of preparation. Students should start early so that they have ample time left for revision in the end.

  • Candidates are advised to create a study plan and strictly adhere to it. Having a study plan will give students a sense of discipline and consistency in preparation.

  • Students should practice as many sample papers as possible to get a real-like feel of the exam and understand the paper pattern.

  • It is important that students take proper breaks during their preparation. Candidates must indulge in their favourite hobbies to avoid any unwanted preparation stress.

CLAT Sample Paper 2026 with Answer Key- Careers360
Download the CLAT Sample Paper 2026 PDF featuring the latest exam pattern with descriptive-type questions for effective preparation.
Download EBook

Also, check Topics-wise question papers-

Parul University Law Admissions 2025

FINAL Registrations Deadline- 05th AUG | India's youngest NAAC A++ accredited University | NIRF rank band 151-200 | Approved by Bar Council of India

Sanskaram University Law Admissions 2025

100+ Industry collaborations | 10+ Years of legacy

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

1. How can I download CLAT previous year question papers?

Read the complete article to download the CLAT PYQ PDF, CLAT question paper 2025, CLAT question paper 2024, CLAT question paper 2023 and all other previous sessions’ papers.

2. When should I start practicing CLAT previous year question papers?

Begin practicing CLAT previous year question papers around 2-3 months before the test. This will help you get acquainted with the pattern and enhance your time management abilities.

3. Are CLAT previous year question papers enough for exam preparation?

While CLAT previous year question papers are helpful in understanding the test format, they should be complemented with extensive study resources, current events, and practice from a variety of sources to guarantee full preparation.

4. What is the importance of solving CLAT previous year question papers?

Solving CLAT previous year question papers allows you to become acquainted with the test structure, identify key themes, and evaluate your strengths and shortcomings. It also improves your time management abilities and promotes your confidence in the actual test.

5. What types of questions are asked in CLAT previous year papers?

CLAT previous year papers typically include questions from the following sections: English Language, Current Affairs, Legal Reasoning, Logical Reasoning, Quantitative Techniques. Each section tests specific skills relevant to legal studies.

Articles

Certifications By Top Providers

Sociology XI Part-I
Via School of International Studies, Jawaharlal Nehru University, New Delhi
Study from Still Life
Via Indira Gandhi National Open University, New Delhi
Introduction to Political Theory
Via Indian Institute of Technology Guwahati
Shakespeare Across Cultures
Via Central University of Kerala, Kasaragod
Anthropology Understanding Societies and Cultures
Via The University of Newcastle, Newcastle
Swayam
 162 courses
Edx
 129 courses
Futurelearn
 74 courses
NPTEL
 74 courses
Coursera
 52 courses

Explore Top Universities Across Globe

Questions related to CLAT

Have a question related to CLAT ?

CLAT is a entrance exam,after clearing CLAT exam you are eligible for national law University ,But after CLAT you does not got any type of scholarship,but after clearing this exam you have many opportunities on the basis of merit you will got different type of scholarships.

Hello Vaishali

A CLAT score of 46.25 is considered low for top NLUs (National Law Universities), but you can still get a lower NLU (if reserved category) or a private college like:

1. UPES Dehradun
2. ICFAI Law School, Hyderabad
3. Alliance University, Bangalore
4. VIT School of Law
5. Amity Law School, Noida

For more information about CLAT: CLAT 2025

Hope this answer helps! Thank You!!!

Hi dear candidate,

Your rank of 4032 in CLAT exam with EWS appears to be insufficient for admission in IP University colleges as the category wise cut off for IPU colleges is lower than your rank at least for the top tier colleges like VIPS and MAIMS.

The majority of seats are reserved for students with Delhi domicile in IPU colleges and if you belong to outside Delhi then, it's slightly difficult.

However, some colleges like Trinity (TIIPS) in Dwarka accepted admissions for Law at higher rank of around 8,000 so you might also have a chance there.

Otherwise, you can find top Law colleges in Delhi NCR at our official website:

Law Colleges in Delhi NCR 2025 – Courses, Fees, Admission, Rank

BEST REGARDS

Hello Aspirant,

The CLAT (Common Law Admission Test) exam consists of five subjects which are given below:-

1. English Language

2. Current Affairs, including General Knowledge

3.Legal Reasoning

4. Logical Reasoning

5. Quantitative Techniques (Basic Mathematics)

And

These subjects are tested in one single paper with 120 multiple-choice questions for UG CLAT (as per the latest pattern from 2024 onwards). Each question carries 1 mark, and there's a 0.25 negative mark for every incorrect answer.


With an All India SC category rank of 1561 in CLAT, you have a strong chance of getting admission into several National Law Universities through the counselling rounds. Based on past year trends, this rank can fetch you a seat in NLUs like NLIU Bhopal, HNLU Raipur, RGNUL Patiala, and possibly even higher-ranked ones like WBNUJS Kolkata or NLU Jodhpur depending on how cutoffs move in the later rounds.

SC category cutoffs for top NLUs tend to vary each year, but many of them have admitted students with SC ranks between 1500 and 3000, especially in rounds 2 and 3. Your chances increase further if you list a wide range of NLUs in your preference order during counselling. Also, make sure to complete all required counselling steps, document verification, and preference locking on time to avoid missing out.

With your rank, you're well-positioned to get a seat—just stay active in the admission process and keep checking updates from the CLAT consortium.

View All

Read the passage carefully and answer the question

The Contract should be performed by the promisor himself. However, in certain cases, it can also be performed by his agents or legal representatives. It all depends upon the intention of the parties. Normally a contract can be performed by the following persons. 

  1. Promisor himself: If from the nature of the contract it appears that it was the intention of the parties that the promise should be performed by the promisor himself, such promise must be performed by the promisor. This usually applies to contracts involving personal skill, task, or artwork. 
  2. Promisor or his Agent: Where the contract does not involve the personal skill of the promisor, the contract could be performed by the promisor himself or by any competent person employed by him for the purpose, 
  3. Legal Representatives: The contracts which do not involve any personal skill or taste, may be performed by his legal representative after the death of the promisor.
  4. Third Person: In some cases, a contract may be performed by a third person provided the promisee accepts the arrangement. According to Section 41 of the Indian Contract Act, once the promisee accepts the performance from a third person, he cannot compel the promisor to perform the contract again. 
  5. Performance of Joint Promises: According to section 42 of the Indian Contract Act, when two or more persons have made a joint promise, the joint promisors must fulfill the promise jointly during their lifetime. And if any one of them dies, then his legal representatives and survivors must jointly fulfill the promise. 

Section 43 of the Indian Contract Act further provides that unless a contrary intention appears from the contract, each joint promisor may compel every other joint promisor to contribute equally to the performance of the promise. If any joint promisor makes a default in such contribution, the remaining joint promisors must bear the loss arising from such default in equal shares.

Question:

Aman received a box of chocolates from Basant and promised to pay Rupees 5000. Later on, A becomes bankrupt. Chetan who is a friend of Aman pays rupees 1000 to Besant on behalf of Aman. Aman is not aware of such a transaction. In civil court, insolvency proceedings have started against Aman. Meanwhile, Basant has also applied for a recovery of 5000 rupees. Decide.

Option: 1

Basant is entitled to recover the amount of 5000 from Aman.


Option: 2

Basant is entitled to recover the amount of 4000 from Aman.


Option: 3

Chetan is entitled to recover the amount of 1000 from Basant.


Option: 4

Basant cannot recover any amount from Aman as he has become insolvent.


Read the passage carefully and answer the question

The Contract should be performed by the promisor himself. However, in certain cases, it can also be performed by his agents or legal representatives. It all depends upon the intention of the parties. Normally a contract can be performed by the following persons. 

  1. Promisor himself: If from the nature of the contract it appears that it was the intention of the parties that the promise should be performed by the promisor himself, such promise must be performed by the promisor. This usually applies to contracts involving personal skill, task, or artwork. 
  2. Promisor or his Agent: Where the contract does not involve the personal skill of the promisor, the contract could be performed by the promisor himself or by any competent person employed by him for the purpose, 
  3. Legal Representatives: The contracts which do not involve any personal skill or taste, may be performed by his legal representative after the death of the promisor.
  4. Third Person: In some cases, a contract may be performed by a third person provided the promisee accepts the arrangement. According to Section 41 of the Indian Contract Act, once the promisee accepts the performance from a third person, he cannot compel the promisor to perform the contract again. 
  5. Performance of Joint Promises: According to section 42 of the Indian Contract Act, when two or more persons have made a joint promise, the joint promisors must fulfill the promise jointly during their lifetime. And if any one of them dies, then his legal representatives and survivors must jointly fulfill the promise. 

Section 43 of the Indian Contract Act further provides that unless a contrary intention appears from the contract, each joint promisor may compel every other joint promisor to contribute equally to the performance of the promise. If any joint promisor makes a default in such contribution, the remaining joint promisors must bear the loss arising from such default in equal shares.

Question:

K promises to paint a picture for L on a certain day, at a certain price. K dies before the day of the contract. Decide. 

Option: 1

The contract can be enforced by K’s representative 


Option: 2

The contract can be enforced by L


Option: 3

The contract can be enforced either by K’s representation or by L 


Option: 4

The contract cannot be enforced either by K’s representative, or L


Read the passage carefully and answer the question

The Contract should be performed by the promisor himself. However, in certain cases, it can also be performed by his agents or legal representatives. It all depends upon the intention of the parties. Normally a contract can be performed by the following persons. 

  1. Promisor himself: If from the nature of the contract it appears that it was the intention of the parties that the promise should be performed by the promisor himself, such promise must be performed by the promisor. This usually applies to contracts involving personal skill, task, or artwork. 
  2. Promisor or his Agent: Where the contract does not involve the personal skill of the promisor, the contract could be performed by the promisor himself or by any competent person employed by him for the purpose, 
  3. Legal Representatives: The contracts which do not involve any personal skill or taste, may be performed by his legal representative after the death of the promisor.
  4. Third Person: In some cases, a contract may be performed by a third person provided the promisee accepts the arrangement. According to Section 41 of the Indian Contract Act, once the promisee accepts the performance from a third person, he cannot compel the promisor to perform the contract again. 
  5. Performance of Joint Promises: According to section 42 of the Indian Contract Act, when two or more persons have made a joint promise, the joint promisors must fulfill the promise jointly during their lifetime. And if any one of them dies, then his legal representatives and survivors must jointly fulfill the promise. 

Section 43 of the Indian Contract Act further provides that unless a contrary intention appears from the contract, each joint promisor may compel every other joint promisor to contribute equally to the performance of the promise. If any joint promisor makes a default in such contribution, the remaining joint promisors must bear the loss arising from such default in equal shares.

Question:

Rohan has agreed to manage the catering services during the marriage of Sohan’s son Ramu. On the day of marriage, Rohan felt ill and sent his manager to the management of catering services. Ramu happily gets married to Tina and people appreciated the food and decoration of the event. When Rohan asked Sohan for the remaining amount, he denied it because Rohan himself had not managed so it is a breach. Decide.

 

Option: 1

Rohan is not entitled to get the remaining amount due to a breach of contract.


Option: 2

Rohan is entitled to sue Sohan for the remaining amount.


Option: 3

Rohan is entitled to sue Ramu because it was his marriage.


Option: 4

Instead of Rohan, his manager can only sue Sohan for the breach.


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

Natural justice is another name for common sense justice rules of natural justice are not in codified form these principles are embedded or ingrained or inbuilt in the conscience of human beings. It supplies the omission made in codified law and helps in the administration of justice. Natural justice is not only confined to ‘fairness’ it will take many shades and colours based on the context. Thus natural justice apart from ‘fairness’ also implies reasonableness, equity and equality. They are neither cast in a rigid mould nor can they be put in a legal straitjacket. These principles written by nature in the heart of mankind, they are immutable, inviolable, and inalienable.

It is true that the concept of natural justice is not very clear and, therefore, it is not possible to define it; yet the principles of natural justice are accepted and enforced. In the case of Ridge V. Baldwin Court observed that “in modern times have sometimes been expressed to the effect that natural justice is as vague as to be practically meaningless. But I would regard these as tainted by the perennial fallacy that because something cannot be cut and dried or nicely weighed or measured therefore it does not exist”. The term natural justice signifies fundamental rules of judicial procedure and fair play in action. According to Lord Widgery “the principles of natural justice were those fundamental rules; the breach will prevent justice from being seen to be done”. Earliest expression of ‘natural justice’ could be found in the philosophical expression of Roman Jurist (jus natural) and signified rules and principles for the conduct of man which were independent of enacted law or customs and could be discovered by the rational intelligence of man and would grow out of and conform to his nature.

The rule against bias that surfaced in 1610 in Dr Bonham's Casewhere Chief Justice Coke went so far as to say that the Court could declare an Act of Parliament void if it made a man as judge in his own cause, or otherwise ‘against common right and reason’. This was one of his grounds for disallowing the claim of the College of Physicians to fine and imprison Doctor Bonham, a Doctor of Physics of Cambridge University, for practising in the city of London without the licence of College of Physicians. The statute under which the College acted provided that fines should go half to the King half to the College so that the College had a financial interest in its own judgement and was judged in its own cause.

Question:

X is a student of a college and his father Y is a professor in the same college. In one instance, X is caught to be involved in unparliamentary activities inside the college campus. The enquiry committee is set up and Y is appointed as the head of the committee. Decide.

Option: 1

Y is a professor of the same college hence he can become a member of the enquiry committee


Option: 2

Y is X’s father hence he should not be a part of the enquiry committee


Option: 3

Y can be a part of the enquiry committee but cannot be its head


Option: 4

There is no rule that prevents the appointment of Y until he fulfils his function diligently


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

Natural justice is another name for common sense justice rules of natural justice are not in codified form these principles are embedded or ingrained or inbuilt in the conscience of human beings. It supplies the omission made in codified law and helps in the administration of justice. Natural justice is not only confined to ‘fairness’ it will take many shades and colours based on the context. Thus natural justice apart from ‘fairness’ also implies reasonableness, equity and equality. They are neither cast in a rigid mould nor can they be put in a legal straitjacket. These principles written by nature in the heart of mankind, they are immutable, inviolable, and inalienable.

It is true that the concept of natural justice is not very clear and, therefore, it is not possible to define it; yet the principles of natural justice are accepted and enforced. In the case of Ridge V. Baldwin Court observed that “in modern times have sometimes been expressed to the effect that natural justice is as vague as to be practically meaningless. But I would regard these as tainted by the perennial fallacy that because something cannot be cut and dried or nicely weighed or measured therefore it does not exist”. The term natural justice signifies fundamental rules of judicial procedure and fair play in action. According to Lord Widgery “the principles of natural justice were those fundamental rules; the breach will prevent justice from being seen to be done”. Earliest expression of ‘natural justice’ could be found in the philosophical expression of Roman Jurist (jus natural) and signified rules and principles for the conduct of man which were independent of enacted law or customs and could be discovered by the rational intelligence of man and would grow out of and conform to his nature.

The rule against bias that surfaced in 1610 in Dr Bonham's Casewhere Chief Justice Coke went so far as to say that the Court could declare an Act of Parliament void if it made a man as judge in his own cause, or otherwise ‘against common right and reason’. This was one of his grounds for disallowing the claim of the College of Physicians to fine and imprison Doctor Bonham, a Doctor of Physics of Cambridge University, for practising in the city of London without the licence of College of Physicians. The statute under which the College acted provided that fines should go half to the King half to the College so that the College had a financial interest in its own judgement and was judged in its own cause.

Question:

Mr X is an employee of a corporate office. His wife Y is a judge. In one instance, X is found to be involved in a money laundering case at his office. The office now files a suit and Y is appointed as the judge for this case. Decide.

Option: 1

Y is a judge by herself, hence can be appointed to adjudicate this case


Option: 2

Y is can be appointed as a judge only if she fulfils her responsibilities without any bias


Option: 3

Y can adjudicate the case and if the company finds the penalty to be insufficient then they can appeal against it


Option: 4

Y cannot be the judge in this case ab initio


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

Natural justice is another name for common sense justice rules of natural justice are not in codified form these principles are embedded or ingrained or inbuilt in the conscience of human beings. It supplies the omission made in codified law and helps in the administration of justice. Natural justice is not only confined to ‘fairness’ it will take many shades and colours based on the context. Thus natural justice apart from ‘fairness’ also implies reasonableness, equity and equality. They are neither cast in a rigid mould nor can they be put in a legal straitjacket. These principles written by nature in the heart of mankind, they are immutable, inviolable, and inalienable.

It is true that the concept of natural justice is not very clear and, therefore, it is not possible to define it; yet the principles of natural justice are accepted and enforced. In the case of Ridge V. Baldwin Court observed that “in modern times have sometimes been expressed to the effect that natural justice is as vague as to be practically meaningless. But I would regard these as tainted by the perennial fallacy that because something cannot be cut and dried or nicely weighed or measured therefore it does not exist”. The term natural justice signifies fundamental rules of judicial procedure and fair play in action. According to Lord Widgery “the principles of natural justice were those fundamental rules; the breach will prevent justice from being seen to be done”. Earliest expression of ‘natural justice’ could be found in the philosophical expression of Roman Jurist (jus natural) and signified rules and principles for the conduct of man which were independent of enacted law or customs and could be discovered by the rational intelligence of man and would grow out of and conform to his nature.

The rule against bias that surfaced in 1610 in Dr Bonham's Casewhere Chief Justice Coke went so far as to say that the Court could declare an Act of Parliament void if it made a man as judge in his own cause, or otherwise ‘against common right and reason’. This was one of his grounds for disallowing the claim of the College of Physicians to fine and imprison Doctor Bonham, a Doctor of Physics of Cambridge University, for practising in the city of London without the licence of College of Physicians. The statute under which the College acted provided that fines should go half to the King half to the College so that the College had a financial interest in its own judgement and was judged in its own cause.

Question:

X was a renowned cricketer in the 1980s. His son Y is a struggling cricketer who has been trying to get into the national team for many years. In the year 2020, X is appointed as a member of the selection committee. In the match which is supposed to decide the final team of the nation, Y scores a century and Z scores 65 runs. However, Z is selected to represent India and Y is not. Y now appeals against the decision, the main ground being the presence of X in the committee. Decide.

Option: 1

The appeal will stand as Y scored a century yet Z was selected after scoring 65 runs


Option: 2

The appeal will be quashed since X’s presence should have benefitted Y, but it didn’t, hence the rejection of Y is valid


Option: 3

The appeal will stand as X’s presence is a factor of bias


Option: 4

The appeal will be quashed since X was a renowned cricketer


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

Natural justice is another name for common sense justice rules of natural justice are not in codified form these principles are embedded or ingrained or inbuilt in the conscience of human beings. It supplies the omission made in codified law and helps in the administration of justice. Natural justice is not only confined to ‘fairness’ it will take many shades and colours based on the context. Thus natural justice apart from ‘fairness’ also implies reasonableness, equity and equality. They are neither cast in a rigid mould nor can they be put in a legal straitjacket. These principles written by nature in the heart of mankind, they are immutable, inviolable, and inalienable.

It is true that the concept of natural justice is not very clear and, therefore, it is not possible to define it; yet the principles of natural justice are accepted and enforced. In the case of Ridge V. Baldwin Court observed that “in modern times have sometimes been expressed to the effect that natural justice is as vague as to be practically meaningless. But I would regard these as tainted by the perennial fallacy that because something cannot be cut and dried or nicely weighed or measured therefore it does not exist”. The term natural justice signifies fundamental rules of judicial procedure and fair play in action. According to Lord Widgery “the principles of natural justice were those fundamental rules; the breach will prevent justice from being seen to be done”. Earliest expression of ‘natural justice’ could be found in the philosophical expression of Roman Jurist (jus natural) and signified rules and principles for the conduct of man which were independent of enacted law or customs and could be discovered by the rational intelligence of man and would grow out of and conform to his nature.

The rule against bias that surfaced in 1610 in Dr Bonham's Casewhere Chief Justice Coke went so far as to say that the Court could declare an Act of Parliament void if it made a man as judge in his own cause, or otherwise ‘against common right and reason’. This was one of his grounds for disallowing the claim of the College of Physicians to fine and imprison Doctor Bonham, a Doctor of Physics of Cambridge University, for practising in the city of London without the licence of College of Physicians. The statute under which the College acted provided that fines should go half to the King half to the College so that the College had a financial interest in its own judgement and was judged in its own cause.

Question:

X is a married judge who is well known for his honesty in the entire city. He has a son Y. One fine day Y gets kidnapped and the kidnapper demands a sum of 20 lakhs from X. However, the kidnapper is caught by the police. X is now appointed as the judge for the hearing of the kidnapper. Decide.

Option: 1

X can be the judge since he can decide the punishment better as he was the sufferer


Option: 2

X cannot be the judge since there is a possibility that he will be biased while delivering the judgement


Option: 3

X can be the judge since he is renowned for his honesty and fulfil his duties


Option: 4

X can be the judge but his statement can be appealed against if delivered with bias


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

Natural justice is another name for common sense justice rules of natural justice are not in codified form these principles are embedded or ingrained or inbuilt in the conscience of human beings. It supplies the omission made in codified law and helps in the administration of justice. Natural justice is not only confined to ‘fairness’ it will take many shades and colours based on the context. Thus natural justice apart from ‘fairness’ also implies reasonableness, equity and equality. They are neither cast in a rigid mould nor can they be put in a legal straitjacket. These principles written by nature in the heart of mankind, they are immutable, inviolable, and inalienable.

It is true that the concept of natural justice is not very clear and, therefore, it is not possible to define it; yet the principles of natural justice are accepted and enforced. In the case of Ridge V. Baldwin Court observed that “in modern times have sometimes been expressed to the effect that natural justice is as vague as to be practically meaningless. But I would regard these as tainted by the perennial fallacy that because something cannot be cut and dried or nicely weighed or measured therefore it does not exist”. The term natural justice signifies fundamental rules of judicial procedure and fair play in action. According to Lord Widgery “the principles of natural justice were those fundamental rules; the breach will prevent justice from being seen to be done”. Earliest expression of ‘natural justice’ could be found in the philosophical expression of Roman Jurist (jus natural) and signified rules and principles for the conduct of man which were independent of enacted law or customs and could be discovered by the rational intelligence of man and would grow out of and conform to his nature.

The rule against bias that surfaced in 1610 in Dr Bonham's Casewhere Chief Justice Coke went so far as to say that the Court could declare an Act of Parliament void if it made a man as judge in his own cause, or otherwise ‘against common right and reason’. This was one of his grounds for disallowing the claim of the College of Physicians to fine and imprison Doctor Bonham, a Doctor of Physics of Cambridge University, for practising in the city of London without the licence of College of Physicians. The statute under which the College acted provided that fines should go half to the King half to the College so that the College had a financial interest in its own judgement and was judged in its own cause.

Question:

X and Y have been married for five years. X is a judge and Y is a doctor. X is pretty much unhappy with his married life so he wants to divorce Y. Y refuses to agree to a divorce by mutual consent hence X files a suit against Y. Decide.

Option: 1

X cannot file a suit since he is a judge


Option: 2

X can file a suit against Y in legal capacity but not as a judge


Option: 3

X cannot file a divorce suit against Y since there is no valid ground for divorce


Option: 4

X can proceed with mutual consent but not contested divorce


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

In the case of M/S Halonex Limited, 59-A Noida vs State of U.P., it was held that “In reply to the aforesaid submission, learned counsel for opposite party no.2 submitted that the case of the applicants that no amount is due from their side to the complainant is a matter of defence which cannot be considered at this stage. It has been submitted that the term 'entrustment' as used in Section 405 IPC has been given a wider interpretation. It has been submitted that the goods returned by the complainant to the Company for replacement or for reimbursement would be deemed to have been entrusted to the Company and as the applicants 2 & 3 were handling its affair they become responsible. To buttress the said submission, the learned counsel for the complainant drew the attention of the Court to a decision of the Apex Court in the case of Ram Narayan Popli Vs. Central Bureau of Investigation: (2003) 3 SCC 641, wherein it was observed that: "the term "entrustment" is not necessarily a term of law. It may have different implications in different contexts. In its most general signification all it imports is the handing over possession for some purpose which may not imply the conferring of any proprietary right at all." Attention was also drawn to an observation made in the judgment of the aforesaid case, where it was observed that: "to establish the charge of criminal breach of trust, the prosecution is not obliged to prove the precise mode of conversion, misappropriation or misapplication by the accused of the property entrusted to him or over which he has dominion. The principal ingredient of the offence being dishonest misappropriation or conversion which may not ordinarily be a matter of direct proof, entrustment of property and failure in breach of an obligation to account for the property entrusted if proved, may, in the light of other circumstances, justifiably lead to an inference of dishonest misappropriation or conversion”.

Question:

X tracks down an expensive necklace on the road. Not knowing to whom it belongs. X sells it promptly to a jeweller without attempting to find the owner or submitting the necklace to the authorities. Decide the liability of X.

Option: 1

Extortion


Option: 2

Criminal breach of trust


Option: 3

Theft


Option: 4

Criminal misappropriation of Property


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

In the case of M/S Halonex Limited, 59-A Noida vs State of U.P., it was held that “In reply to the aforesaid submission, learned counsel for opposite party no.2 submitted that the case of the applicants that no amount is due from their side to the complainant is a matter of defence which cannot be considered at this stage. It has been submitted that the term 'entrustment' as used in Section 405 IPC has been given a wider interpretation. It has been submitted that the goods returned by the complainant to the Company for replacement or for reimbursement would be deemed to have been entrusted to the Company and as the applicants 2 & 3 were handling its affair they become responsible. To buttress the said submission, the learned counsel for the complainant drew the attention of the Court to a decision of the Apex Court in the case of Ram Narayan Popli Vs. Central Bureau of Investigation: (2003) 3 SCC 641, wherein it was observed that: "the term "entrustment" is not necessarily a term of law. It may have different implications in different contexts. In its most general signification all it imports is the handing over possession for some purpose which may not imply the conferring of any proprietary right at all." Attention was also drawn to an observation made in the judgment of the aforesaid case, where it was observed that: "to establish the charge of criminal breach of trust, the prosecution is not obliged to prove the precise mode of conversion, misappropriation or misapplication by the accused of the property entrusted to him or over which he has dominion. The principal ingredient of the offence being dishonest misappropriation or conversion which may not ordinarily be a matter of direct proof, entrustment of property and failure in breach of an obligation to account for the property entrusted if proved, may, in the light of other circumstances, justifiably lead to an inference of dishonest misappropriation or conversion”.

Question:

P borrows from L his phone for using it to call his parents. However, when L is distracted, P removes the memory card of the phone and later on sells it. Decide the liability of P.

Option: 1

P is guilty under dishonest misappropriation of property

 


Option: 2

P is not guilty for any offence since the phone was given with consent


Option: 3

P is guilty for theft


Option: 4

P has been handed over the phone, so he has the right to use it as he likes


Lawyer

A lawyer advises clients on legal matters, represents them in court, and drafts legal documents. They work in various fields like criminal, corporate, or family law. Key skills include communication, research, and analytical thinking. To become a lawyer in India, one must complete a law degree, clear entrance exams, register with the Bar Council, and pass the All India Bar Examination.

4 Jobs Available
Civil Lawyer

A civil lawyer handles non-criminal legal disputes like family, property, and contract issues. They represent clients in court, draft documents, and advise on legal rights. To practice in India, one needs an LLB degree and Bar Council enrollment. Civil lawyers work in firms, government, or independently, with growing demand across various specialisations.

3 Jobs Available
Human Rights Lawyer

Individuals in the human rights lawyer career path are legal professionals responsible for advocating for people whose inherent dignity has been violated and who have suffered a lot of injustice. They take cases to defend the human rights of minorities, vulnerable populations, the LGBTQI community, indigenous people and others. 

2 Jobs Available
Criminal Lawyer

A criminal lawyer defends individuals or organisations accused of crimes, ensuring fair trial and legal rights. They analyse cases, represent clients in court, conduct legal research, and negotiate plea deals. Strong communication, analytical, and ethical skills are essential. After earning a law degree, gaining experience, and registering with a Bar Council, they can practise independently or with law firms.

2 Jobs Available
Family Lawyer

Family lawyers are required to assist a client in resolving any family-related problem. In general, family lawyers operate as mediators between family members when conflicts arise. Individuals who opt for a career as Family Lawyer is charged with drafting prenuptial agreements to protect someone's financial interests prior to marriage, consulting on grounds for impeachment or civil union separation, and drafting separation agreements.

2 Jobs Available
Cyber Lawyer

A cyber lawyer handles legal issues related to the internet, such as cybercrimes, data breaches, and online privacy. They prepare legal documents, represent clients in court, and advise businesses on cybersecurity compliance. The career requires a law degree, specialisation in cyber law, and strong tech knowledge.

2 Jobs Available
Immigration Lawyer

An immigration lawyer is responsible for representing the individuals (clients) involved in the immigration process that includes legal, and illegal citizens and refugees who want to reside in the country, start a business or get employment. 

2 Jobs Available
Government Lawyer

A Government Lawyer represents the government in legal matters, provides legal advice to officials, drafts legislation, and prosecutes or defends cases. The role requires strong research, communication, and analytical skills. To pursue this career, one must obtain an LLB, pass the Bar Exam, gain court experience, and apply for government positions. Career progression includes roles from junior to senior government lawyer.

2 Jobs Available
Back to top