CLAT Previous Year Question Papers PDF - Download PYQ Answer Keys & Sample Paper

The Consortium of National Law Universities (NLUs) has made the previous year's CLAT question papers available in PDF format. Solving CLAT PYQ will help students learn about key features of the CLAT 2026 test, such as question kinds, difficulty level, and marking scheme. Students preparing for the Common Law Admission Test can use the CLAT previous year papers with answers PDF to better understand the exam's intricacies and nature.

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This Story also Contains

1. CLAT Previous Year Question Papers PDF Download
2. How to download CLAT PYQ?
3. Benefits of solving CLAT previous year question papers
4. CLAT Sample Papers 2026
5. CLAT PG Question & Answers 2026

The CLAT 2026 exam will be conducted in December. The CLAT 2026 application form will be released in July, and interested applicants can apply. The scores of CLAT 2026 will be accepted by 24 NLUs for 5-year LLB and LLM courses. Read the complete article to download the CLAT PYQ PDF, CLAT question paper 2025, CLAT question paper 2024, CLAT question paper 2023 and all other previous sessions’ papers.

CLAT Previous Year Question Papers PDF Download

How to download CLAT PYQ?

The CLAT previous year question paper with answer pdf download can be completed by following the below-given steps:

• Click on the CLAT previous year paper link that you want to download.

• Students will be redirected to the eBook store of Careers360.

• If you are a registered user, login with your credentials on the login panel that will appear on the screen.

• New users will be required to complete their registration by entering basic details like name, mobile number, email etc.

• Upon completing the registration candidates will be directed to the CLAT question paper PDF download.

• Next, click on the “Download” button.

• The CLAT previous year question paper PDF will be sent to the candidate's registered email address.

Benefits of solving CLAT previous year question papers

Here are some of the advantages of solving CLAT PYQ papers:

• Solving previous year CLAT exam papers will boost candidates' confidence in their preparations. The more CLAT previous year papers applicants solve, the more assured they will feel about their preparations.
  
  The CLAT question papers from past years will provide applicants with a comprehensive overview of the CLAT 2026 syllabus Students will also become acquainted with the CLAT 2026 test pattern.

• Candidates can test their knowledge and preparations through these CLAT PYQ papers. Students are advised to carefully analyze their performance after solving these papers.

• Students can identify their weak areas after completing these previous year question papers of CLAT. Candidates need to identify the areas and topics from the incorrectly answered questions.

• A good way to develop time management skills and accuracy is by practising the CLAT previous year papers PDF. Students will get an idea about the time they take to finish the question papers.

CLAT Sample Papers 2026

Along with the question papers of previous sessions, candidates can also take the help of the CLAT sample papers for previous years to prepare for the exam. The Consortium of NLUs releases a set of sample papers of CLAT to help candidates in their preparation. The download links of CLAT sample papers have been given below:

CLAT Sample Papers for Previous Years

CLAT PG Question & Answers 2026

Passage 1

Passage (Q.1-Q.10): As noticed, motive, when proved, supplies additional link in the chain of circumstantial evidence but, absence thereof cannot, by itself, be a ground to reject the prosecution case; although absence of motive in a case based on circumstantial evidence is a factor that weighs in favour of the accused. The question of motive in the present case, in our view, cannot be examined only with reference to the testimony of the wife of the appellant who has, even while admitting that she left the children in the company of the appellant and thereafter heard only about their demise, chosen not to support the accusations against the appellant. Even brother of the appellant, though attempted to depose against the prosecution case but indeed testified to the fact that there had been strains in the relationship of the appellant and his wife. The submission that strained relationship of appellant with his wife may not provide sufficient motive for killing the children cannot be accepted for the reason that the motive projected in the present case had been that the appellant doubted the paternity of the deceased children and suspected that they were not his sons. We are clearly of the view that when the evidence on record unambiguously proves the guilt of the accused-appellant, the factor relating to motive cannot displace or weaken the conclusions naturally flowing from the evidence. Differently put, in our view, when all the facts and circumstances are taken together, the present one is not a case where there had been any missing link in the chain of circumstances, leading only to the conclusion of the guilt of the appellant. … It remains trite that the burden of proving the existence of circumstances so as to bring the case within the purview of Section 84 IPC lies on the accused in terms of Section 105 of the Evidence Act; and where the accused is charged of murder, the burden to prove that as a result of unsoundness of mind, the accused was incapable of knowing the consequences of his acts is on the defence, as duly exemplified by illustration (a) to the said Section 105 of the Evidence Act. As noticed, the mandate of law is that the Court shall presume absence of the circumstances so as to take the case within any of the General Exceptions in the Indian Penal Code, 1860. The principles of burden of proof in the context of plea of unsoundness of mind had been stated by this Court in the case of [1].

1. Which of the following cases has been referred in [1]?

(a) Sabitri Samantaray vs. State of Odisha, 2022

(b) D.C. Thakkar vs. State of Gujarat, 1964

(c) Pappu vs. State of Uttar Pradesh

(d) Hanumant vs. State of Madhya Pradesh

Solution: It was in the case of D.C. Thakkar, that the Supreme Court stated the principles of burden of proof in the context of plea of unsoundness of mind. The court stated that, “The doctrine of burden of proof in the context of the plea of insanity may be stated in the following propositions: I. The prosecution must prove beyond reasonable doubt that the accused had committed the offence with the requisite mens rea, and the burden of proving that always rests on the prosecution from the beginning to the end of the trial. II. There is a rebuttable presumption that the accused was not insane, when he committed the crime, in the sense laid down by Section 84 of the Indian Penal Code: the accused may rebut it by placing before the court all the relevant evidence oral, documentary or circumstantial, but the burden of proof upon him is no higher than that rests upon a party to civil proceedings. III. Even if the accused was not able to establish conclusively that he was insane at the time he committed the offence, the evidence placed before the court by the accused or by the prosecution may raise a reasonable doubt in the mind of the court as regards one or more of the ingredients of the offence, including mens rea of the accused and in that case the court would be entitled to acquit the accused on the ground that the general burden of proof resting on the prosecution was not discharged. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

2. In which of the following cases, it was held that burden of proof to establish plea of alibi on accused is very heavy?

(a) Sabitri Samantaray vs. State of Odisha, 2022

(b) Sudru vs. State of Chhattisgarh, 2019

(c) Pappu Tiwary vs. state of Jharkhand, 2022

(d) Pappu vs. State of Uttar Pradesh, 2022

Solution: In the case of Pappu Tiwary vs. State of Jharkhand, 2022, the Supreme Court observed that the burden of establishing the plea of alibi on accused is heavy. The burden of proof present in Section 106 of the Indian Evidence Act is required to be proved with certainty so as to completely exclude the possibility of the presence of the accused at the place of occurrence. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

3. Statement I: Motive, if proved would supply link in the chain of circumstantial evidence. Statement II: Absence of motive favours of accused as it is a ground to reject the prosecution case.

(a) Statement I and II are correct.

(b) Statement I and II are incorrect.

(c) Statement I is correct and II is incorrect.

(d) Statement I is incorrect and II is correct.

Solution: In the above-mentioned case, from which this extract has been borrowed, the Court observed that, “As regards the relevancy of motive in a case based on circumstantial evidence, the weight of authorities is on principles that if motive is proved, that would supply another link in the chain of circumstantial evidence but, absence of motive cannot be a ground to reject the prosecution case, though such an absence of motive is a factor that weighs in favour of the accused”. Hence, the correct answer is option (c).

4. What among the following statement holds true about Section 329 of CrPC?

(a) Procedure in case of accused being lunatic

(b) Procedure in case of unsound mind tried before Court

(c) Procedure for the Court to be open

(d) Procedure in case of accused being juvenile

Solution: (b) Section 329 of CrPC provides for Procedure in case of unsound mind tried before Court. Section 328 provides for procedure in case of accused being lunatic. Court is to be open is provided under Section 327. Hence, the correct answer is option (b).

5. Which of the following cases led to the establishment of principle of unsoundness as a general defense?

(a) R vs. McNaughten

(b) R vs. Dudley and Stephens

(c) Woolmington vs. DPP

(d) R vs. Kershaw

Solution: (a) Insanity is one of the general defences of Indian Penal Code, 1860. The defense in the IPC is taken from English law and English law is based on McNaughten rules. McNaughten rule prescribed that, ‘the accused in order to get exemption from criminal responsibility on the ground of insanity, must prove that, owing to a defect of reason due to a disease of mind, he did not know the nature and quality of his act, if he did know this, that he did not know that he was doing wrong’.

6. Which of the following cases is landmark as it laid down the panchsheel theory?

(a) Shivaji Sahebrao Bobade vs. State of Maharashtra

(b) Chandmal vs. Province of Rajasthan

(c) Periyasami vs. State of Madras

(d) Sharad Birdhichand Sarda vs. State of Maharashtra

Solution: In the case of Sharad Birdichand, the Supreme Court elaborated the principles of circumstantial evidence laid down in Hanumant vs. State of Madhya Pradesh, which later known as five golden principles, famously known as Panchsheel theory. In Chandmal, three principles were laid down by the Supreme Court. Shivaji case is related to the testimony of eye witness i.e., direct evidence. Periyasami case is pertaining to evidentiary value of hostile witness. Hence, the correct answer is option (d).

7. “A judge does not preside over a criminal trial merely to see that no innocent man is punished. A judge also presides to see that a guilty man does not escape. Both are public duties.” In which of the following cases, Justice Arijit Pasayat quoted the above statement?

(a) Hari Singh Gond vs. State of Madhya Pradesh, 2008

(b) Shrikant Anandrao Bhosale vs. State of Maharashtra, 2002

(c) State of Punjab vs. Karnail Singh, 2003

(d) Bapu alias Gujraj Singh v. State of Rajasthan, 2007

Solution: In the case of Karnail Singh, Justice Arijit Pasayat quoting the English Court decision of Stirland vs. DPP, held that, “If an offence takes place inside the privacy of a house and in such circumstances where the assailants have all the opportunity to plan and commit the offence at the time and in circumstances of their choice, it will be extremely difficult for the prosecution to lead evidence to establish the guilt of the accused if the strict principle of circumstantial evidence, as noticed above, is insisted upon by the courts. A judge does not preside over a criminal trial merely to see that no innocent man is punished. A judge also presides to see that a guilty man does not escape. Both are public duties.” Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

8. A person, Z killed two of his sons. He pleas that no person of sane mind would kill their own children. What among the following holds true regarding the facts?

(a) The burden of proof lies on Prosecution to prove that Z is of sane mind

(b) The burden of proof lies on Z to prove that he is of insane mind

(c) The Court shall presume regarding the insanity of Z

(d) None of the above

Solution: As per Section 105 of the Indian Evidence Act, the burden of proving that the case of accused falls within the general exceptions lies on the accused himself. The provision states that, When a person is accused of any offence, the burden of proving the existence of circumstances bringing the case within any of the General Exceptions in the Indian Penal Code, 1860 or within any special exception or proviso contained in any other part of the same Code, or in any law defining the offence, is upon him, and the Court shall presume the absence of such circumstances. Hence, the burden of proof lies on Z to prove that his case falls under the defense of Section 84 IPC. It is not the duty of the prosecution to prove that Z is sane as the Court will presume the absence of accused’s case falling under General Explanations. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

9. Which of the following is not covered under Section 84 of Indian Penal Code?

(a) Legal Insanity

(b) Medical Insanity

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

Solution: It has been ruled by the Supreme Court in the case of Hari Singh Gond vs. State of MP, 2008, that “mentally ill” people and psychopaths are unable to seek immunity from a criminal case, as it is their responsibility to demonstrate insanity at the time the crime was committed. So, in practice, not every person who is mentally ill is exempt from criminal liability. There has to be a distinction between legal insanity and medical insanity. “Arijit Pasayat and the Bench of Justices, DK Jain, stated while upholding the life conviction of a man who cut off his wife’s head. The mere abnormality of mind, partial delusion, irresistible impulse or compulsive behavior of a psychopath does not provide protection from criminal prosecution as provided by the apex court held Section 84 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC). “Every person suffering from mental illness is not ipso facto exempt from criminal liability”. Hence, Section 84 of IPC only covers legal insanity, which may or may not include instances of medical insanity. Hence, the correct answer is option (b).

10. The Magistrate of First Class convicted X for the commission of offense of Section 379 IPC and imposed fine of Rs. 10,000 as punishment. However, X committed default of fine. In light of the concerned provisions, X will be liable to undergone imprisonment of:

(a) Not more than three years

(b) Not more than nine months

(c) Not more than three years and nine months

(d) No imprisonment as it was not awarded earlier

Solution: For the above facts, the reference shall be made to Section 30 of the CrPC. It provides for sentence of imprisonment in default of fine. It provides for The Court of a Magistrate may award such term of imprisonment in default of payment of fine as is authorised by law: Provided that the term (a) is not in excess of the powers of the Magistrate under section 29; (b) shall not, where imprisonment has been awarded as part of the substantive sentence, exceed one-fourth of the term of imprisonment which the Magistrate is competent to inflict as punishment for the offence otherwise than as imprisonment in default of payment of the fine. Thus, since there has been no imprisonment awarded in the substantive sentence, proviso (b) is not applicable. Only proviso (a) will be applicable which states that any sentence not in excess of powers of the Magistrate. As per Section 29, JMIC can pass any imprisonment not more than three years. Hence, the correct answer is option (a).

Passage 2

Passage (Q.11-Q.20): Coal continues to be an important and scarce natural resource. Nothing more is required to establish the same than the very lis over it. It forms an important raw material in the production of vital final products. Also, it forms a kind of fuel, which drives power plants. A monopoly, undoubtedly, stood created by the Nationalisation Act. The mines, which were the subject matter of the Act, stood vested with the Central Government. The first appellant is a Government Company, which came into being, as contemplated under Section 5 of the Nationalisation Act. The appellant-Company operates the mines. It is tasked with the power and the duty to distribute coal. This attracts the Directive Principle enshrined in Article 39(b). The said Directive Principle contemplates that the ‘State’ should direct its policy towards securing that the ownership and control of the ‘material resources’ are so ‘distributed’ so as to ‘subserve the common good’. The argument of the appellants is partly based on the dictate of Article 31(B), which, together with the Ninth Schedule, the insertion in which Schedule, immunizes laws from being invalidated on the ground that they take away or abridge Fundamental Rights. The Nationalisation Act was inserted in the Ninth Schedule on 10th August, 1975. We are not, in this case, called upon to sit in Judgment over the insertion of the Nationalisation Act on the basis that it is violative of the basic structure of the Constitution in terms of what has been laid down in I.R. Coelho (supra). We proceed on the basis, therefore, that the Nationalisation Act was insulated by virtue of Article 31B. Equally, we proceed on the basis that it can be treated as a law giving effect to the policy of the State towards securing the principles enshrined in Article 39(b).

11. Anti-competitive agreements are:

(a) Void

(b) Voidable

(c) Valid

(d) Invalid

Solution: Section 3 of Competition Commission Act 2002 provides that no enterprise or association of enterprises or person or association of persons shall enter into any agreement in respect of production, supply, distribution, storage, acquisition or control of goods or provision of services, which causes or is likely to cause an appreciable adverse effect on competition within India. Any agreement entered into in contravention of this provisions shall be void. Section 3 prohibits anti-competitive agreements. They are declared void. Hence, option (a) is correct and other options are factually incorrect.

12. The entry ‘Mines’ belongs to which list in the Indian Constitution?

(a) Entry 54 of List 1

(b) Entry 57 of List 1

(c) Entry 14 of List II

(d) Entry 9 of List III

Solution: Entry 54 of List 1 provides for Regulation of mines and mineral development to the extent to which such regulation and development under the control of the Union is declared by Parliament by law to be expedient in the public interest. It thus stood vested with the Central Government. Hence option a is correct. Entry 57 of List 1 provides for Fishing and fisheries beyond territorial waters. Hence, option b is incorrect. Entry 14 of List II provides for Agriculture, including agricultural education and research, protection against pests and prevention of plant diseases. Hence, option c is incorrect. Entry 9 of List III provides for Bankruptcy and insolvency. Hence, option d is incorrect.

13. Which of the following cases is known as the bank nationalisation case?

(a) Shankari Prasad v Union of India 1951

(b) Maneka Gandhi v Union of India 1978

(c) Rustom Cavasjee Cooper v Union of India 1970

(d) State of West Bengal v. Anwar Ali Sarkar 1952

Solution: Rustom Cavasjee Cooper v Union of India 1970- This is famously known as the bank nationalisation case. In this case the Banking Companies act was challenged. The object of the Act was to provide for the acquisition and transfer of the Undertakings of certain banking companies in order to better serve the needs of development of the economy in conformity with the national policy. The court held that the act is violative of Art 31 but not of 19(1)(g) of Indian Constitution. Hence option c is correct. Shankari Prasad v Union of India 1951-The constitutional First amendment Act was challenged in this case. The SC upheld its validity as the parliament was competent to exercise the amending power. Hence option b is incorrect. In the Maneka Gandhi case 1978, the seven-Judge Bench held that Article 14, Article 19 and Article 21 have to be read together as they form a golden triangle. Furthermore, the procedure established by law under article 21 must be just, fair and reasonable. Hence b is the incorrect option. In the case of State of West Bengal v. Anwar Ali Sarkar 1952, the test of reasonable classification was laid down. The classification must be founded on an intelligible differentia which distinguishes those that are grouped from others that are left out of the group. The differentia must have a rational relation to the object sought to be achieved by the Act. Hence d is the incorrect option.

14. The Ninth schedule was added by which constitutional amendment?

(a) 1st Constitutional Amendment Act

(b) 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act

(c) 61st Constitutional Amendment Act

(d) 24th Constitutional Amendment Act

Solution: First Constitutional Amendment Act 1951 inserted article 31A and 31B and inserted the Nineth Schedule whereby any Acts and Regulations specified in the Ninth Schedule shall be deemed to be void, on the ground that such Act Regulation is inconsistent with the provisions of Fundamental Rights. Hence option A is correct. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act 1976 is also known as a mini constitution. It introduced numerous changes in the constitution like amendment in the Preamble, introduction of Articles like 323A and 323B etc. it also introduced Art 39A of Indian Constitution which deals with free legal aid. Hence option b is incorrect. The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act 1989 reduced the voting age of adults from 21 years to 18 years by amending article 326. Hence, option c is incorrect. 24th Constitutional Amendment Act 1971 provides that Parliament has power to amend any provision of the Constitution so as to include the provisions of Part III within the scope of the amending power. It also seeks to amend article 368 suitably for the purpose and makes it clear that article 368 provides for the power of amendment of the Constitution as well as procedure therefore.

15. In which of the following cases, Article 31C of the Indian Constitution was declared invalid on the grounds of exclusion of judicial review?

(a) Keshavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala 1973

(b) Minerva Mills v Union of India1980

(c) Shankari Prasad v Union of India 1951

(d) Golaknath v State of Punjab 1967

Solution: Article 31C provides that Notwithstanding anything contained in article 13, no law giving effect to the policy of the State towards securing all or any of the principles laid down in Part IV shall be deemed to be void on the ground that it is inconsistent with, or takes away or abridges any of the rights conferred by article 14 or article 19; The bold part was declared invalid by the Supreme Court in Minerva Mills Ltd. and Others Vs Union of India and Others, AIR 1980 SC 1789. and no law containing a declaration that it is for giving effect to such policy shall be called in question in any court on the ground that it does not give effect to such policy. The words in italics were struck down by the Supreme Court in Keshavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala, AIR 1973, SC 1461 as it excluded the power of judicial review of SC. Hence, option a is correct and option b is incorrect. Shankari Prasad v Union of India 1951- The constitutional First amendment Act was challenged in this case. The SC upheld its validity as the parliament was competent to exercise the amending power. Hence option c is incorrect. Golaknath v State of Punjab 1967- SC held that parliament does not have power to amend the fundamental rights by virtue of Art 368. Hence, the 24thConstitutional Amendment Act was passed. Hence, option d is incorrect.

16. Which of the following cases does not relate to Sovereign immunity of the state?

(a) Nagendra Rao v State of UP, 1994

(b) Kali Ram v. State of Himachal Pradesh, 2023

(c) Nobin Chunder Dey v. Secretary of State of India 1875

(d) Shyam Sunder v. State of Rajasthan 1974

Solution: Kali Ram v. State of Himachal Pradesh, 2023- Another golden thread which runs through the web of the administration of justice in criminal cases is that if two views are possible on the evidence adduced in the case one pointing to the guilt of the accused and the other to his innocence, the view which is favourable to the accused should be adopted This principle has a special relevance in cases where in the guilt of the accused is sought to be established by circumstantial evidence. Hence, option b is correct. Nagendra Rao v State of UP, 1994- Sovereign immunity as a defence was, thus, never available where the State was involved in commercial or private undertaking nor it is available where its officers are guilty of interfering with life and liberty of a citizen not warranted by law. In both such infringements the State is vicariously liable and bound, constitutionally, legally and morally, to compensate and indemnify the wronged person. Nobin Chunder Dey v. Secretary of State of India 1875- The English principle of sovereign immunity. of the Crown was applied and plaintiff's claim for recovery of damages against the State for non- issuing of the excise pass and in the alternative for refund of the auction money was rejected as it was an act done by the Government in exercise of sovereign power of the State. Shyam Sunder v. State of Rajasthan 1974- After considering the principle of sovereign immunity as understood in England and even applied in America, the SC observed that there was no "logical or practical" ground for exempting the sovereign from the suit for damages. Hence, option a, c and d relate to sovereign immunity of the state. Hence, option b is correct.

17. The word ‘common good’ under article 39 of Indian Constitution is based on which of the following jurists?

(a) Polland

(b) Austin

(c) Bentham

(d) Salmond

Solution: In Coal India Ltd v. Competition Commission of India, 2023 SC observed that “The expression ‘common good’ in Article 39(b) is in a Benthamite sense involves achieving the highest good of the maximum number of people. The meaning of the words ‘common good’ may depend upon the times, the felt necessities, the direction that the Nation wishes to take in the future, the socioeconomic condition of the different classes, the legal and Fundamental Rights and also the Directive Principles themselves. Hence, option a is correct and other options are factually incorrect.

18. Which of the following goals does not fall under Art 39?

(a) Equal Pay for Equal work

(b) Equal Justice and Free legal Aid

(c) ownership and control of the material resources of the community

(d) to minimise concentration of wealth

Solution: Article 39 of Indian Constitution provides for certain principles of policy to be followed by the State which are as follows:: that the citizens, men and women equally, have the right to an adequate means of livelihood; that the ownership and control of the material resources of the community are so distributed as best to subserve the common good; that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment; that there is equal pay for equal work for both men and women; that the health and strength of workers, men and women, and the tender age of children are not abused and that citizens are not forced by economic necessity to enter avocations unsuited to their age or strength; that children are given opportunities and facilities to develop in a healthy manner and in conditions of freedom and dignity and that childhood and youth are protected against exploitation and against moral and material abandonment. Article 39A provides for Equal justice and free legal aid. Hence, option b is correct and other options are factually incorrect.

19. Whether the principle ‘King can do no wrong’ is applicable in Indian Context?

(a) Yes, as provided by Article 300

(b) No, as provided by Article 300

(c) Yes, as provided by Article 299

(d) No, as provided by Article 299

Solution: The English principle ‘King can do no wrong’ is not applicable in India. Article 300 provides for the principle that the State can sue and can be sued. Hence, the state can be held liable for the wrongful act committed by it or its instrumentalities. Art 300 provides that The Government of India may sue or be sued by the name of the Union of India and the Government of a State may sue or be sued by the name of the State. Hence option b is correct and option a is incorrect. Article 299 provides for Government Contract. It read “All contracts made in the exercise of the executive power of the Union or of a State shall be expressed to be made by the President, or by the Governor of the State, as the case may be, and all such contracts and all assurances of property made in the exercise of that power shall be executed on behalf of the President or the Governor by such persons and in such manner as he may direct or authorise.” Hence, option c and d are incorrect.

20. Which of the following cases does not relate to tortious liability of the state?

(a) Rudul Sah v. State of Bihar 1983

(b) Anbazhagan v State 2023

(c) Saheli, A Women's Resources Centre v. Commissioner of Police 1989

(d) Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa 1993

Solution: Anbazhagan v State, 2023- SC while differentiating between Part 1 and Part II of section 304 Indian Penal Code held that, Section 304 Part I would apply when there is ‘guilty intention,’ whereas Part II would apply when there is no such intention, but there is ‘guilty knowledge’. Further, under Part I, the crime of murder is first established and the accused is then given the benefit of one of the exceptions to S. 300 IPC, while under Part II, the crime of murder is never established at all. Hence, option B is correct. Rudul Sah v. State of Bihar 1983- The petitioner's detention in the prison after his acquittal was wholly unjustified. Hence, the state was made liable for his wrongful act and the petitioner was awarded compensation. Hence option a is incorrect. Saheli, A Women's Resources Centre v. Commissioner of Police 1989- It is well settled that the State is responsible for the tortious acts of its employees. Hence option c is incorrect. Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa 1993- "It may be mentioned straightaway that award of compensation in a proceeding under Article 32 by this Court or by the High Court under Article 226 of the Constitution is a remedy available in public law, based on strict liability for contravention of fundamental rights to which the principle of sovereign immunity does not apply, even though it may be available as a defence in private law in an action based on tort." Hence, option d is incorrect.

CLAT Exam Pattern 2026

CLAT 2025 exam pattern will help candidates understand important details about the exam like the type of questions, nature of questions, marking scheme, duration of the exam etc. Students before starting their preparations must thoroughly acquaint themselves with the CLAT exam pattern 2026. The detailed exam pattern of CLAT 2026 has been given below:

CLAT 2025 Exam Pattern

CLAT 2026 Preparation Tips

Here are some preparation tips to ace the CLAT exam:

• Candidates should draft a clear preparation strategy before starting their preparations. Students must figure out what topics they want to attempt first or how are they going to approach each part of their CLAT preparation.

• Students must give special attention to the revision of subjects and topics. It is important that students recollect whatever they have learned during the course of preparation. Students should start early so that they have ample time left for revision in the end.

• Candidates are advised to create a study plan and strictly adhere to it. Having a study plan will give students a sense of discipline and consistency in preparation.

• Students should practice as many sample papers as possible to get a real-like feel of the exam and understand the paper pattern.

• It is important that students take proper breaks during their preparation. Candidates must indulge in their favourite hobbies to avoid any unwanted preparation stress.

Also, check Topics-wise question papers-

• CLAT Maths Questions with Solutions
• CLAT GK Questions with Answer
• CLAT English Questions with Answer
• Logical Reasoning Questions for CLAT
• Criminal Law Questions for CLAT with Answers