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CLAT 2022 Question Paper with Solutions - Download Answer Key PDF

CLAT 2022 Question Paper with Solutions - Download Answer Key PDF

Edited By Ritika Jonwal | Updated on Sep 02, 2024 01:47 PM IST | #CLAT

Are you preparing for CLAT 2025? This is the right time to analyse the previous year's Question Papers. This article provides a thorough CLAT analysis for 2022 with CLAT 2022 Question Paper and CLAT Question Paper 2022 PDF. The CLAT exam 2022 consisted of 150 sections divided into 5 sections: English, Current Affairs, Legal Reasoning, Logical Reasoning, and Quantitative Techniques. Each question consists of 1 mark and has a negative marking of 0.25 points. The overall level of the paper was moderate but lengthy.

CLAT 2022 Question Paper with Answer Key with Detailed Solutions PDF

CLAT 2022 Question Paper PDF Download PDF

You may also check the previous year's question paper with detailed solutions:

SLAT 2025 - The Symbiosis Law Admission Test

Conducted by Symbiosis International (Deemed University) | Ranked #5 in Law by NIRF | Ranked #2 among best Pvt Universities by QS World Rankings

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CLAT 2022 Question Paper Analysis

The CLAT Question Paper 2022 consists of 150 multiple-choice questions covering the following topics that candidates must understand: General Knowledge & Current Affairs, English comprehension, Legal thinking, Logical thinking, and Quantitative Techniques. The following is a general summary of the question types seen in the CLAT 2022 question papers:

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Sections

Good Attempts

Difficulty Level

No. of Questions

Important Topics

English

21-22

Easy but lengthy

6 Comprehensions with 5 questions each i.e.


30 MCQs

Five of the comprehensions were based on non-fiction (journals, newspapers, etc.), and one was based on fiction (Sir Arthur Conan Doyle's works). The questions were simple and predicated on comprehension knowledge.

General knowledge

25-26

Difficult

7 Comprehensions with 5 questions each i.e.


35 MCQs

Understandings were predicated on the following: the Gandhi Peace Prize; Faith for Right Mechanism; Global Water Day; Chabahar Day/INSTC; Ramsar Sites/World Wetland Day; Indo-China disengagement; and Covid-19 Vaccines Maitri.

Quantitative aptitude

8-9

Moderate

15 MCQs

Exam questions assessed applicants' understanding of topics related to arithmetic, averages, percentages, ratios, profit and loss, revenue and expenses, and simplifications.

Legal Reasoning

33-34

Very Difficult

8 Comprehensions with 5 questions each i.e.


40 MCQs

Law of Contracts, Hindu Marriage Act, Volenti Non-fit Injuria, and other passages were mentioned. The majority of test takers found the portion to be somewhat challenging and intricate.

Logical reasoning

22-25

Moderate

6 Comprehensions with 5 questions each i.e.


30 MCQs

One comprehension each on the socioeconomic position in schools, the influence of climate change on Asia, and India and its neighbours were based on COVID-19. The majority of the queries concerned conclusions, deductions, and inferences.

Overall

100+

Moderate

150


Section-wise Analysis of CLAT 2022 Question Paper

As per the CLAT exam pattern, the paper is bifurcated into 5 sections. Now, let's examine the thorough analysis for every section of CLAT 2022 Question papers:

1. English - Reading Comprehension - Certain questions were undoubtedly unclear. RC was rather simple, with long portions; it took about 25–27 minutes to try and finish the full part. Six paragraphs in all, each with five questions, were included. Three of the questions dealt with tones, while three more dealt with figures of speech. A decent effort would be between 25 and 26 questions or a score of 21 and 22.

2. Current Affairs including General Knowledge - The student's general assessment is " strange and Challenging." We concur! Although students tormented themselves by reading editorials and newspapers all year long, the General Knowledge portion did not go as planned. We'll just refer to it as CLAT's surprise for this year. The majority of the inquiries came from 2020 and 2021. There were altogether 7 passages with 5 questions each. The portion was somewhat challenging overall. An optimum attempt of 30-31 points and a score of 25+ would be regarded as good.

3. Quantitative Aptitude - This time, no mistakes. Simple portion. There were three sets totalling fifteen questions. A student would have easily received between eight and ten marks if they had tackled this portion instead of avoiding it completely.

4. Legal Reasoning - We would refer to this portion as "Easy to Moderate." Students who don't agree would be those who didn't pay close attention to the first learning guideline, which is to "Understand the concept." With eight passages totalling forty questions, this portion might be considered easy to moderate. All of the sections were based on some of the most fundamental legal ideas. A decent score might be defined as 28–30 with an optimal effort of 34–35 questions. The stretch took between 35 and 37 minutes to finish because of its length.

5. Logical Reasoning - Time management is crucial in this situation. Tough questions and brief paragraphs characterise this portion of the CLAT 2022. This year's version of the part was more difficult than the previous one. If one could devote 30 minutes to this subject, a score of 16–18 out of 30 questions over 6 sections, with an optimal effort of 22–25 questions, may be deemed satisfactory.

CLAT 2022 Question Paper and Answer

The CLAT 2022 Question Paper aids applicants in comprehending the most recent CLAT syllabus, format, key chapters, and subjects. June 20, 2022, saw the publication of the CLAT 2022 question paper and answer key. The CLAT 2022 question papers PDF is available for download here for candidates.

Section - English Language

Passage - Public speaking is a powerful real-life skill. Over the centuries, impressive speeches made by people from various walks of life have helped to change hearts, and minds and shape the world as we see it today. Speeches that are delivered with intense emotions and conviction can infuse compassion and forgiveness; elevate levels of hatred and destruction; and break or unite nations. On October 5, in 1877 in the mountains of Montana Territory, when Chief Joseph surrendered to General Nelson A. Miles, the former gave a Surrender Speech. The speech included these words:It is cold, and we have no blankets; the little children are freezing to death. I want time to look for my children and see how many of them I can find. Maybe I shall find them among the dead. Hear me, my Chiefs! I am tired; my heart is sick and sad. From where the sun now stands I will fight no more forever." The heart-wrenching speech bared the grief and misery of the speaker, and those subjected to overwhelming hardships. During World War II, the speech We Shall Fight on the Beaches delivered by Winston Churchill on June 4, 1940, is considered a high-powered speech that strengthened the determination of those present in the House of Commons. In the speech, he said, Even though large tracts of Europe and many old and famous States have fallen or may fall into the grip of the Gestapo and all the odious apparatus of Nazi rule, we shall not flag or fail. We shall go on to the end, we shall fight in France, we shall fight on the seas and oceans, we shall fight with growing confidence and growing strength in the air, we shall defend our island, whatever the cost may be, we shall fight on the beaches, we shall fight on the landing grounds, we shall fight in the fields and in the streets, we shall fight in the hills;" In 1950, William Faulkner was honoured with a Nobel Prize for his significant contributions to the American novel. This was the time when the Soviet Union had found the possible implications of the use of the atomic bomb, and people had begun to live in fear of annihilation. In his Nobel Prize Acceptance Speech, Faulkner urged writers of various genres to think and write beyond the fear of destruction, and instead write materials that would lift the human spirit. The powerful message included:I believe that man will not merely endure: he will prevail. He is immortal, not because he alone among creatures has an inexhaustible voice, but because he has a soul, a spirit capable of compassion and sacrifice and endurance. The poet's, the writer's, duty is to write about these things. It is his privilege to help man endure by lifting his heart, by reminding him of the courage and honour and hope and pride and compassion and pity and sacrifice which have been the glories of his past. The poet's voice need not merely be the record of man, it can be one of the props, the pillars to help him endure and prevail." Undoubtedly, effective speeches have a long-lasting impact on the minds of the listeners, and they elevate the levels of awareness or actions the speaker intends to raise or catalyze.

Question 1: The main idea of the passage is that
(A) All leaders should be accomplished public speakers.
(B) An impactful speech can convey a strong message to the listeners.
(C) A speech should sound pleasing to the ears of the listeners.
(D) Public speakers should be bold and argumentative.
Solution: The passage talks about the impact of public speaking on the listeners. The partnership is the key element of ones action to show how he idolises the idea. Hence, option b is the correct answer.

Question 2:The tone of the Surrender Speech is
(A) Satiric
(B) Optimistic
(C) Poignant
(D) Narcissistic
Solution: The surrender speech is certainly filled with emotions and so it is poignant. Hence, option c is perfectly set with the passage.

Question 3: It is evident that through his speech, Churchill wished to __________ his countrymen __________.
(A) Inform, about the challenges that arise in a war-torn country.
(B) Warn, against the futility of war.
(C) Remind, how their endeavours to fight against the Nazi rule had failed miserably.
(D) Reassure, that they would combat fiercely against their enemy under all circumstances.
Solution: Refer to Churchill's speech in the fourth paragraph where Churchill encourages his followers to fight. his words ignited the flame amongst the listeners. Thus option d is correct.

Question 4: Which one of the following is the least likely to be used to describe Churchill?
(A) Resolute
(B) Undaunted
(C) Complacent
(D) Unwavering
Solution: In the passage provided options A, B, and C are mentioned in the passage and describe him thus option d is the correct answer.

Question 5: In the sentence, The poet's voice need not merely be the record of man, it can be one of the props, the pillars to help him endure and prevail, Faulkner has used _________ to convey the power of a poet's writings.
(A) A metaphor
(B) A simile
(C) An onomatopoeia
(D) A transferred epithet
Solution: In the passage, the poet's voice is indirectly compared with a pillar. The figure of speech that is used is a metaphor and hence option A is correct.

Section - Current Affairs including General Knowledge

Passage - When we hear the name SPACE, only one organization comes to mind: the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO). The Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO), located in Bengaluru, is the country's first space agency. ISRO was founded in 1969 with the goal of developing and utilizing space technology for national development while also conducting planetary exploration and space science research. The space research operations began in India in the early 1960s, at a time when satellite applications were still in the experimental stages in the United States. Dr. Vikram Sarabhai, the founding father of India's space programme, rapidly recognized the benefits of space technologies after the live transmission of the Tokyo Olympic Games across the Pacific by the American satellite Syncom demonstrated the power of communication satellites. The ISRO has launched various spacecraft like the Chandrayaan, Astrosat, Microsat, GSAT etc. The Government of India has also approved a regional spaceborne navigation system, which will consist of seven satellites. Out of these, four of them will be placed in a geosynchronous inclined orbit of 29° relative to the equatorial plane. Such an arrangement would mean all seven satellites would have continuous radio visibility with Indian control stations.

Question: Name the first dedicated mission launched by ISRO for studying the celestial sources in X-ray, optical and UV spectral bands simultaneously
(A) Amazonia
(B) Astrosat
(C) Gaganyaan
(D) Lunar Polar Exploration Mission
Solution: Astrosat is India's first dedicated wavelength space telescope. Option B is correct.

Question 2: APPLE, the first communication satellite of ISRO was launched from
(A) Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota
(B) TERLS, Thiruvananthapuram
(C) Kourou, French Guiana
(D) SSLV Launching Station, Tamil Nadu
Solution: APPLE was an experimental communication satellite successfully launched by Ariane-1 from Korou, French Guinea on 19/06/1981; hence option c is correct

Question 3: Name the spacecraft that has been successfully sent into space to probe the planets in the solar system
(A) Sputnik 19
(B) Cosmos 482
(C) Pioneer-E
(D) Mariner 10
Solution: Mariner 10 was the first spacecraft sent to the planet Mercury the first mission to explore planets. Hence option d is correct.

Question 4: The first successful Nuclear Bomb test conducted by India in 1974, is called the:
(A) Prithvi
(B) Pokhran-II
(C) Smiling Buddha
(D) Surya
Solution The first successful Nuclear Bomb test conducted by India in 1974, is called the smiling buddha. Hence option c is correct.

Question 5: NaviC covers India and region extending:
(A) 1,500 Km
(B) 2,000 Km
(C) 7,000 Km
(D) 1,000 Km
Solution: NaviC covers India and a region extending 1500 km. Hence option A is correct.

Section - Legal Reasoning

Passage - Writ is a public law remedy. It refers to a formal, written order issued by a judicial authority directing an individual or authority to do or refrain from doing an act. The High Court, while exercising its power of judicial review, does not act as an appellate body. It is concerned with the illegality, irrationality and procedural impropriety of an order passed by the State or a Statutory Authority. A High Court is empowered to issue directions, orders or writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights and for any other purpose. The writ jurisdiction of High Court is discretionary and equitable. A writ of mandamus is issued by a court commanding a public authority to perform a public duty belonging to its office. It can be issued only when a legal duty is imposed on the authority and the petitioner has right to compel the performance of such duty. Writ of mandamus is requested to be issued, inter alia, to compel the performance of public duties which may be administrative, ministerial or statutory in nature. A writ of mandamus may be issued in favour of a person who establishes a legal right in himself. It may be issued against a person who has a mandatory legal duty to perform, but has failed or has neglected to do so. Such a legal duty emanates by operation of law. The writ of mandamus is most extensive in regard to its remedial nature. The object of the mandamus is to prevent disorder emanating from failure of justice and is required to be granted in all cases where the law has established no specific remedy.

Question 1: The government of a state made a rule to make it discretionary to grant dearness allowance to its employees. One of the employees filed a writ petition seeking a mandamus to compel the government to grant dearness allowance. In the given situation, which of the following statements is true?
(A) Writ of mandamus cannot be granted as no legal duty was imposed on the government to grant dearness allowance.
(B) Writ of mandamus cannot be granted as a statutory right was conferred on the employee to receive dearness allowance.
(C) Writ of mandamus can be granted as it is a public law remedy.
(D) Writ of mandamus can be granted as it is a discretionary remedy.
Solution: Writ of mandamus cannot be granted as no legal duty was imposed on the government to grant dearness allowance. The writ of mandamus is applied only when there is a legal duty imposed on the public office/officers. Here, there is no such situation. Thus cannot be attracted.

Question 2: A public-spirited citizen filed a writ petition seeking a mandamus to compel the government to make a law to curb the ill effects of climate change. In the given situation, which of the following statements is true?
(A) Writ of mandamus can be granted as it is an equitable remedy.
(B) Writ of mandamus cannot be granted as no legal duty is imposed on the government to pass a law to curb the ill effects of climate change.
(C) Writ of mandamus can be granted as it is a discretionary remedy.
(D) Writ of mandamus cannot be granted as there is no violation of fundamental rights.
Solution: Writ of mandamus cannot be granted as no legal duty is imposed on the government to pass a law to curb the ill effects of climate change. The writ mandates that there shall be legal duty but as seen over this issue it is a request, not a legal duty imposed onto the government thus writ cannot be issued by the courts.

Question 3: Mr. A and Mr. B are parties to a contract of sale of goods. Upon breach of contractual obligations by Mr A, Mr B filed a writ petition seeking a mandamus to compel Mr A to perform his obligations under the contract. In the given situation, which of the following statements is true?
(A) Writ of mandamus can be granted as it is a discretionary remedy.
(B) Writ of mandamus cannot be granted as there is no violation of fundamental rights.
(C) Writ of mandamus cannot be granted as Mr.B's right under the contract is a private right.
(D) Writ of mandamus can be granted as there is no statutory duty imposed on Mr A to fulfil his contractual obligations.
Solution: Writ of mandamus cannot be granted as Mr. B's right under the contract is a private right. The liability is contractual not the part of writ thus the writ cannot be attracted to this situation.

Question 4: A licensing officer is under a statutory duty to issue a license to an applicant who fulfils the conditions prescribed for the issue of such license. Mr. X, an applicant, fulfilled all the conditions prescribed for the issue of such license, but his application for issuance of license was rejected by the licensing officer. In the given situation, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Writ of mandamus can be granted compelling the license officer to issue the license.
(B) Writ of mandamus cannot be granted compelling the licensing officer to issue the license as there is no violation of fundamental rights.
(C) Writ of mandamus can be granted as it is the discretion of the licensing officer to grant the license.
(D) Writ of mandamus cannot be granted compelling the licensing officer to issue the license as there is no violation of public duty.
Solution: Writ of mandamus can be granted compelling the license officer to issue the license. In this situation, the person is a public officer and public authority thus writ of mandamus can be applied over this officer and the order of the court is valid.

Question 5: Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(A) Writ of mandamus may be issued in favour of a person who establishes the existence of a legal right.
(B) Writ of mandamus may be issued against a person or authority who has a mandatory duty to perform but has failed or has neglected to do so.
(C) Writ of mandamus is purported to prevent disorder emanating from failure of justice.
(D) Writ of mandamus may be requested to be issued to compel the performance of private duties which may be administrative, ministerial or statutory in nature.
Solution: A writ of mandamus may be requested to be issued to compel the performance of private duties which may be administrative, ministerial or statutory. The writ of mandamus can only be applied to public offices not private be it of any kind. Mandamus means we command, the courts command it to public offices with the legal duty to compel.

You may also check:

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Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

1. Was CLAT 2022 exam was difficult?

 In comparison to other years, the CLAT 2022 exam was rather simple overall. It took 150 minutes to complete 120 multiple-choice questions. The CLAT question paper from the previous year was impartial and uncontroversial. This year's questions were foreseeable and manageable, in contrast to the abundance of surprise ones from last year.

2. What was the CLAT 2022 question paper like?

The questions were simple and predicated on comprehension knowledge. Law of Contracts, Hindu Marriage Act, Volenti Non-fit Injuria, and other passages were mentioned. The majority of test takers found the portion to be somewhat challenging and intricate.

3. What was the highest score in CLAT 2022 exam?

Out of 150, the highest score for UG CLAT 2022 score was 121.

4. In 2022, how many students took the CLAT exam?

Out of 60,895 registrations, 56,472 applicants took the CLAT in 2022.

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Questions related to CLAT

Have a question related to CLAT ?

Hello,

Here are the links where you can get information about CLAT exam and also study material offered by careers360 :

1. CLAT 2025 information and how to prepare :

https://law.careers360.com/articles/how-prepare-for-clat

2. Study material :

- https://law.careers360.com/articles/best-books-for-clat

- https://law.careers360.com/download/clat-ebooks?sort=recommended&utm_source=clat_ebooks&utm_medium=GoogleAds&utm_campaign=2307&gad_source=1

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For CLAT, a central government issued reservation form is typically required. This is because CLAT is a national-level entrance exam and follows specific guidelines for reservation categories.

While a state-issued reservation form might be accepted in some cases, it's highly recommended to obtain a central government issued form to avoid any potential issues. This form can usually be obtained from the respective state's social justice department or a designated government office.

Regarding the validity of your 2022 state reservation form: While it might be valid for three years in some contexts, it's best to check the specific requirements for CLAT. The eligibility criteria and document requirements can change from year to year. It's advisable to obtain a new central government issued reservation form for the current year to ensure that your application meets all the necessary criteria.

For more information about CLAT you can go through the link attached below.

https://law.careers360.com/exams/clat






Hello aspirant,

On July 15, 2025, the Consortium of National Law Universities (NLUs) launched the CLAT 2025 Registration. Until October 15, 2024, candidates may complete the CLAT Application Form 2025. All qualified applicants may complete the CLAT Application Form 2025 by going to consortiumofnlus.ac.in, the official website. Candidates must pay the CLAT 2025 application costs as specified in the CLAT Exam Notification. Important dates for CLAT Registration 2025 were outlined in the CLAT 2025 Notification, which was made public on July 7.

For complete information, please visit the following link:

https://law.careers360.com/exams/clat

Thank you

Hope it helps you.

VIT Chennai offers 5 years integrated programme of law LLB for the admission Merit list is prepared based on performance in 10+2 and valid CLAT/LSAT score.no seperate exam is conducted for admission.you need to apply with your CLAT score and 12th marksheet.

Clat exam is near so try to get good score if you didn't perform well in your academics.

Good luck and stay focused.

Hello aspirant,

The Common Law Admission Test (CLAT) is open to engineering students. Students who want to study law in National Law Universities (NLUs) in India for undergraduate (BA LLB) and graduate (LLM) degrees should primarily take the CLAT.

To know the complete eligibility criteria, please visit the following link:

https://law.careers360.com/articles/clat-eligibility-criteria

Thank you

Passage 1
Read the passage below and answer the following question.
Cheating is considered a criminal offence under the Indian Penal Code. It is done to gain profit or advantage from another person by using some deceitful means. The person who deceives another knows for the fact that it would place the other person in an unfair situation. Cheating as an offence can be made punishable under Section 420 of the IPC. Scope of Section 415 Cheating is defined under Section 415 of the Indian Penal Code as whoever fraudulently or dishonestly deceives a person to induce that person to deliver a property to any person or to consent to retain any property. If a person intentionally induces a person to do or omit to do any act which he would not have done if he was not deceived to do so and the act has caused harm to that person in body, mind, reputation, or property, then the person who fraudulently, dishonestly or intentionally induced the other person is said to cheat. Any dishonest concealment of facts that can deceive a person to do an act that he would not have done otherwise is also cheating within the meaning of this section. Essential Ingredients of Cheating requires · deception of any person. Fraudulently or dishonestly inducing that person to deliver any property to any person or to consent that any person shall retain any property; or · intentionally inducing a person to do or omit to do anything which he would not do or omit if he were not so deceived, and the act or omission causes or is likely to cause damage or harm to that person in body, mind, reputation or property.
Deceit– a tort arising from an untrue or false statement of facts which are made by a person, recklessly or knowingly, with an intention that it shall be acted upon by the other person, who would suffer damages as a result. 
Fraud – a false or untrue representation of the fact, that is made with the knowledge of its falsity or without the belief in its truth or a reckless statement that may or may not be true, with an intention to induce a person or individual to act independent of it with the result that the person acts on it and suffers damages and harm. In other words, it is a wrong act or criminal deception with an intention to result in financial or personal gain.
Question - 1 
D went to a moneylender, Z, for the loan. D intentionally pledges the gold article with Z taking the loan. D knows that the article is not made of gold. After a few days, D leaves the village. Decide.

 

Option: 1 None

Option: 2 None

Option: 3 None

Option: 4 None

Read the passage carefully and answer the question

The Contract should be performed by the promisor himself. However, in certain cases, it can also be performed by his agents or legal representatives. It all depends upon the intention of the parties. Normally a contract can be performed by the following persons. 

  1. Promisor himself: If from the nature of the contract it appears that it was the intention of the parties that the promise should be performed by the promisor himself, such promise must be performed by the promisor. This usually applies to contracts involving personal skill, task, or artwork. 
  2. Promisor or his Agent: Where the contract does not involve the personal skill of the promisor, the contract could be performed by the promisor himself or by any competent person employed by him for the purpose, 
  3. Legal Representatives: The contracts which do not involve any personal skill or taste, may be performed by his legal representative after the death of the promisor.
  4. Third Person: In some cases, a contract may be performed by a third person provided the promisee accepts the arrangement. According to Section 41 of the Indian Contract Act, once the promisee accepts the performance from a third person, he cannot compel the promisor to perform the contract again. 
  5. Performance of Joint Promises: According to section 42 of the Indian Contract Act, when two or more persons have made a joint promise, the joint promisors must fulfill the promise jointly during their lifetime. And if any one of them dies, then his legal representatives and survivors must jointly fulfill the promise. 

Section 43 of the Indian Contract Act further provides that unless a contrary intention appears from the contract, each joint promisor may compel every other joint promisor to contribute equally to the performance of the promise. If any joint promisor makes a default in such contribution, the remaining joint promisors must bear the loss arising from such default in equal shares.

Question:

Aman received a box of chocolates from Basant and promised to pay Rupees 5000. Later on, A becomes bankrupt. Chetan who is a friend of Aman pays rupees 1000 to Besant on behalf of Aman. Aman is not aware of such a transaction. In civil court, insolvency proceedings have started against Aman. Meanwhile, Basant has also applied for a recovery of 5000 rupees. Decide.

Option: 1

Basant is entitled to recover the amount of 5000 from Aman.


Option: 2

Basant is entitled to recover the amount of 4000 from Aman.


Option: 3

Chetan is entitled to recover the amount of 1000 from Basant.


Option: 4

Basant cannot recover any amount from Aman as he has become insolvent.


Read the passage carefully and answer the question

The Contract should be performed by the promisor himself. However, in certain cases, it can also be performed by his agents or legal representatives. It all depends upon the intention of the parties. Normally a contract can be performed by the following persons. 

  1. Promisor himself: If from the nature of the contract it appears that it was the intention of the parties that the promise should be performed by the promisor himself, such promise must be performed by the promisor. This usually applies to contracts involving personal skill, task, or artwork. 
  2. Promisor or his Agent: Where the contract does not involve the personal skill of the promisor, the contract could be performed by the promisor himself or by any competent person employed by him for the purpose, 
  3. Legal Representatives: The contracts which do not involve any personal skill or taste, may be performed by his legal representative after the death of the promisor.
  4. Third Person: In some cases, a contract may be performed by a third person provided the promisee accepts the arrangement. According to Section 41 of the Indian Contract Act, once the promisee accepts the performance from a third person, he cannot compel the promisor to perform the contract again. 
  5. Performance of Joint Promises: According to section 42 of the Indian Contract Act, when two or more persons have made a joint promise, the joint promisors must fulfill the promise jointly during their lifetime. And if any one of them dies, then his legal representatives and survivors must jointly fulfill the promise. 

Section 43 of the Indian Contract Act further provides that unless a contrary intention appears from the contract, each joint promisor may compel every other joint promisor to contribute equally to the performance of the promise. If any joint promisor makes a default in such contribution, the remaining joint promisors must bear the loss arising from such default in equal shares.

Question:

K promises to paint a picture for L on a certain day, at a certain price. K dies before the day of the contract. Decide. 

Option: 1

The contract can be enforced by K’s representative 


Option: 2

The contract can be enforced by L


Option: 3

The contract can be enforced either by K’s representation or by L 


Option: 4

The contract cannot be enforced either by K’s representative, or L


Read the passage carefully and answer the question

The Contract should be performed by the promisor himself. However, in certain cases, it can also be performed by his agents or legal representatives. It all depends upon the intention of the parties. Normally a contract can be performed by the following persons. 

  1. Promisor himself: If from the nature of the contract it appears that it was the intention of the parties that the promise should be performed by the promisor himself, such promise must be performed by the promisor. This usually applies to contracts involving personal skill, task, or artwork. 
  2. Promisor or his Agent: Where the contract does not involve the personal skill of the promisor, the contract could be performed by the promisor himself or by any competent person employed by him for the purpose, 
  3. Legal Representatives: The contracts which do not involve any personal skill or taste, may be performed by his legal representative after the death of the promisor.
  4. Third Person: In some cases, a contract may be performed by a third person provided the promisee accepts the arrangement. According to Section 41 of the Indian Contract Act, once the promisee accepts the performance from a third person, he cannot compel the promisor to perform the contract again. 
  5. Performance of Joint Promises: According to section 42 of the Indian Contract Act, when two or more persons have made a joint promise, the joint promisors must fulfill the promise jointly during their lifetime. And if any one of them dies, then his legal representatives and survivors must jointly fulfill the promise. 

Section 43 of the Indian Contract Act further provides that unless a contrary intention appears from the contract, each joint promisor may compel every other joint promisor to contribute equally to the performance of the promise. If any joint promisor makes a default in such contribution, the remaining joint promisors must bear the loss arising from such default in equal shares.

Question:

Rohan has agreed to manage the catering services during the marriage of Sohan’s son Ramu. On the day of marriage, Rohan felt ill and sent his manager to the management of catering services. Ramu happily gets married to Tina and people appreciated the food and decoration of the event. When Rohan asked Sohan for the remaining amount, he denied it because Rohan himself had not managed so it is a breach. Decide.

 

Option: 1

Rohan is not entitled to get the remaining amount due to a breach of contract.


Option: 2

Rohan is entitled to sue Sohan for the remaining amount.


Option: 3

Rohan is entitled to sue Ramu because it was his marriage.


Option: 4

Instead of Rohan, his manager can only sue Sohan for the breach.


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

Natural justice is another name for common sense justice rules of natural justice are not in codified form these principles are embedded or ingrained or inbuilt in the conscience of human beings. It supplies the omission made in codified law and helps in the administration of justice. Natural justice is not only confined to ‘fairness’ it will take many shades and colours based on the context. Thus natural justice apart from ‘fairness’ also implies reasonableness, equity and equality. They are neither cast in a rigid mould nor can they be put in a legal straitjacket. These principles written by nature in the heart of mankind, they are immutable, inviolable, and inalienable.

It is true that the concept of natural justice is not very clear and, therefore, it is not possible to define it; yet the principles of natural justice are accepted and enforced. In the case of Ridge V. Baldwin Court observed that “in modern times have sometimes been expressed to the effect that natural justice is as vague as to be practically meaningless. But I would regard these as tainted by the perennial fallacy that because something cannot be cut and dried or nicely weighed or measured therefore it does not exist”. The term natural justice signifies fundamental rules of judicial procedure and fair play in action. According to Lord Widgery “the principles of natural justice were those fundamental rules; the breach will prevent justice from being seen to be done”. Earliest expression of ‘natural justice’ could be found in the philosophical expression of Roman Jurist (jus natural) and signified rules and principles for the conduct of man which were independent of enacted law or customs and could be discovered by the rational intelligence of man and would grow out of and conform to his nature.

The rule against bias that surfaced in 1610 in Dr Bonham's Casewhere Chief Justice Coke went so far as to say that the Court could declare an Act of Parliament void if it made a man as judge in his own cause, or otherwise ‘against common right and reason’. This was one of his grounds for disallowing the claim of the College of Physicians to fine and imprison Doctor Bonham, a Doctor of Physics of Cambridge University, for practising in the city of London without the licence of College of Physicians. The statute under which the College acted provided that fines should go half to the King half to the College so that the College had a financial interest in its own judgement and was judged in its own cause.

Question:

X is a student of a college and his father Y is a professor in the same college. In one instance, X is caught to be involved in unparliamentary activities inside the college campus. The enquiry committee is set up and Y is appointed as the head of the committee. Decide.

Option: 1

Y is a professor of the same college hence he can become a member of the enquiry committee


Option: 2

Y is X’s father hence he should not be a part of the enquiry committee


Option: 3

Y can be a part of the enquiry committee but cannot be its head


Option: 4

There is no rule that prevents the appointment of Y until he fulfils his function diligently


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

Natural justice is another name for common sense justice rules of natural justice are not in codified form these principles are embedded or ingrained or inbuilt in the conscience of human beings. It supplies the omission made in codified law and helps in the administration of justice. Natural justice is not only confined to ‘fairness’ it will take many shades and colours based on the context. Thus natural justice apart from ‘fairness’ also implies reasonableness, equity and equality. They are neither cast in a rigid mould nor can they be put in a legal straitjacket. These principles written by nature in the heart of mankind, they are immutable, inviolable, and inalienable.

It is true that the concept of natural justice is not very clear and, therefore, it is not possible to define it; yet the principles of natural justice are accepted and enforced. In the case of Ridge V. Baldwin Court observed that “in modern times have sometimes been expressed to the effect that natural justice is as vague as to be practically meaningless. But I would regard these as tainted by the perennial fallacy that because something cannot be cut and dried or nicely weighed or measured therefore it does not exist”. The term natural justice signifies fundamental rules of judicial procedure and fair play in action. According to Lord Widgery “the principles of natural justice were those fundamental rules; the breach will prevent justice from being seen to be done”. Earliest expression of ‘natural justice’ could be found in the philosophical expression of Roman Jurist (jus natural) and signified rules and principles for the conduct of man which were independent of enacted law or customs and could be discovered by the rational intelligence of man and would grow out of and conform to his nature.

The rule against bias that surfaced in 1610 in Dr Bonham's Casewhere Chief Justice Coke went so far as to say that the Court could declare an Act of Parliament void if it made a man as judge in his own cause, or otherwise ‘against common right and reason’. This was one of his grounds for disallowing the claim of the College of Physicians to fine and imprison Doctor Bonham, a Doctor of Physics of Cambridge University, for practising in the city of London without the licence of College of Physicians. The statute under which the College acted provided that fines should go half to the King half to the College so that the College had a financial interest in its own judgement and was judged in its own cause.

Question:

Mr X is an employee of a corporate office. His wife Y is a judge. In one instance, X is found to be involved in a money laundering case at his office. The office now files a suit and Y is appointed as the judge for this case. Decide.

Option: 1

Y is a judge by herself, hence can be appointed to adjudicate this case


Option: 2

Y is can be appointed as a judge only if she fulfils her responsibilities without any bias


Option: 3

Y can adjudicate the case and if the company finds the penalty to be insufficient then they can appeal against it


Option: 4

Y cannot be the judge in this case ab initio


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

Natural justice is another name for common sense justice rules of natural justice are not in codified form these principles are embedded or ingrained or inbuilt in the conscience of human beings. It supplies the omission made in codified law and helps in the administration of justice. Natural justice is not only confined to ‘fairness’ it will take many shades and colours based on the context. Thus natural justice apart from ‘fairness’ also implies reasonableness, equity and equality. They are neither cast in a rigid mould nor can they be put in a legal straitjacket. These principles written by nature in the heart of mankind, they are immutable, inviolable, and inalienable.

It is true that the concept of natural justice is not very clear and, therefore, it is not possible to define it; yet the principles of natural justice are accepted and enforced. In the case of Ridge V. Baldwin Court observed that “in modern times have sometimes been expressed to the effect that natural justice is as vague as to be practically meaningless. But I would regard these as tainted by the perennial fallacy that because something cannot be cut and dried or nicely weighed or measured therefore it does not exist”. The term natural justice signifies fundamental rules of judicial procedure and fair play in action. According to Lord Widgery “the principles of natural justice were those fundamental rules; the breach will prevent justice from being seen to be done”. Earliest expression of ‘natural justice’ could be found in the philosophical expression of Roman Jurist (jus natural) and signified rules and principles for the conduct of man which were independent of enacted law or customs and could be discovered by the rational intelligence of man and would grow out of and conform to his nature.

The rule against bias that surfaced in 1610 in Dr Bonham's Casewhere Chief Justice Coke went so far as to say that the Court could declare an Act of Parliament void if it made a man as judge in his own cause, or otherwise ‘against common right and reason’. This was one of his grounds for disallowing the claim of the College of Physicians to fine and imprison Doctor Bonham, a Doctor of Physics of Cambridge University, for practising in the city of London without the licence of College of Physicians. The statute under which the College acted provided that fines should go half to the King half to the College so that the College had a financial interest in its own judgement and was judged in its own cause.

Question:

X was a renowned cricketer in the 1980s. His son Y is a struggling cricketer who has been trying to get into the national team for many years. In the year 2020, X is appointed as a member of the selection committee. In the match which is supposed to decide the final team of the nation, Y scores a century and Z scores 65 runs. However, Z is selected to represent India and Y is not. Y now appeals against the decision, the main ground being the presence of X in the committee. Decide.

Option: 1

The appeal will stand as Y scored a century yet Z was selected after scoring 65 runs


Option: 2

The appeal will be quashed since X’s presence should have benefitted Y, but it didn’t, hence the rejection of Y is valid


Option: 3

The appeal will stand as X’s presence is a factor of bias


Option: 4

The appeal will be quashed since X was a renowned cricketer


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

Natural justice is another name for common sense justice rules of natural justice are not in codified form these principles are embedded or ingrained or inbuilt in the conscience of human beings. It supplies the omission made in codified law and helps in the administration of justice. Natural justice is not only confined to ‘fairness’ it will take many shades and colours based on the context. Thus natural justice apart from ‘fairness’ also implies reasonableness, equity and equality. They are neither cast in a rigid mould nor can they be put in a legal straitjacket. These principles written by nature in the heart of mankind, they are immutable, inviolable, and inalienable.

It is true that the concept of natural justice is not very clear and, therefore, it is not possible to define it; yet the principles of natural justice are accepted and enforced. In the case of Ridge V. Baldwin Court observed that “in modern times have sometimes been expressed to the effect that natural justice is as vague as to be practically meaningless. But I would regard these as tainted by the perennial fallacy that because something cannot be cut and dried or nicely weighed or measured therefore it does not exist”. The term natural justice signifies fundamental rules of judicial procedure and fair play in action. According to Lord Widgery “the principles of natural justice were those fundamental rules; the breach will prevent justice from being seen to be done”. Earliest expression of ‘natural justice’ could be found in the philosophical expression of Roman Jurist (jus natural) and signified rules and principles for the conduct of man which were independent of enacted law or customs and could be discovered by the rational intelligence of man and would grow out of and conform to his nature.

The rule against bias that surfaced in 1610 in Dr Bonham's Casewhere Chief Justice Coke went so far as to say that the Court could declare an Act of Parliament void if it made a man as judge in his own cause, or otherwise ‘against common right and reason’. This was one of his grounds for disallowing the claim of the College of Physicians to fine and imprison Doctor Bonham, a Doctor of Physics of Cambridge University, for practising in the city of London without the licence of College of Physicians. The statute under which the College acted provided that fines should go half to the King half to the College so that the College had a financial interest in its own judgement and was judged in its own cause.

Question:

X is a married judge who is well known for his honesty in the entire city. He has a son Y. One fine day Y gets kidnapped and the kidnapper demands a sum of 20 lakhs from X. However, the kidnapper is caught by the police. X is now appointed as the judge for the hearing of the kidnapper. Decide.

Option: 1

X can be the judge since he can decide the punishment better as he was the sufferer


Option: 2

X cannot be the judge since there is a possibility that he will be biased while delivering the judgement


Option: 3

X can be the judge since he is renowned for his honesty and fulfil his duties


Option: 4

X can be the judge but his statement can be appealed against if delivered with bias


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

Natural justice is another name for common sense justice rules of natural justice are not in codified form these principles are embedded or ingrained or inbuilt in the conscience of human beings. It supplies the omission made in codified law and helps in the administration of justice. Natural justice is not only confined to ‘fairness’ it will take many shades and colours based on the context. Thus natural justice apart from ‘fairness’ also implies reasonableness, equity and equality. They are neither cast in a rigid mould nor can they be put in a legal straitjacket. These principles written by nature in the heart of mankind, they are immutable, inviolable, and inalienable.

It is true that the concept of natural justice is not very clear and, therefore, it is not possible to define it; yet the principles of natural justice are accepted and enforced. In the case of Ridge V. Baldwin Court observed that “in modern times have sometimes been expressed to the effect that natural justice is as vague as to be practically meaningless. But I would regard these as tainted by the perennial fallacy that because something cannot be cut and dried or nicely weighed or measured therefore it does not exist”. The term natural justice signifies fundamental rules of judicial procedure and fair play in action. According to Lord Widgery “the principles of natural justice were those fundamental rules; the breach will prevent justice from being seen to be done”. Earliest expression of ‘natural justice’ could be found in the philosophical expression of Roman Jurist (jus natural) and signified rules and principles for the conduct of man which were independent of enacted law or customs and could be discovered by the rational intelligence of man and would grow out of and conform to his nature.

The rule against bias that surfaced in 1610 in Dr Bonham's Casewhere Chief Justice Coke went so far as to say that the Court could declare an Act of Parliament void if it made a man as judge in his own cause, or otherwise ‘against common right and reason’. This was one of his grounds for disallowing the claim of the College of Physicians to fine and imprison Doctor Bonham, a Doctor of Physics of Cambridge University, for practising in the city of London without the licence of College of Physicians. The statute under which the College acted provided that fines should go half to the King half to the College so that the College had a financial interest in its own judgement and was judged in its own cause.

Question:

X and Y have been married for five years. X is a judge and Y is a doctor. X is pretty much unhappy with his married life so he wants to divorce Y. Y refuses to agree to a divorce by mutual consent hence X files a suit against Y. Decide.

Option: 1

X cannot file a suit since he is a judge


Option: 2

X can file a suit against Y in legal capacity but not as a judge


Option: 3

X cannot file a divorce suit against Y since there is no valid ground for divorce


Option: 4

X can proceed with mutual consent but not contested divorce


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

In the case of M/S Halonex Limited, 59-A Noida vs State of U.P., it was held that “In reply to the aforesaid submission, learned counsel for opposite party no.2 submitted that the case of the applicants that no amount is due from their side to the complainant is a matter of defence which cannot be considered at this stage. It has been submitted that the term 'entrustment' as used in Section 405 IPC has been given a wider interpretation. It has been submitted that the goods returned by the complainant to the Company for replacement or for reimbursement would be deemed to have been entrusted to the Company and as the applicants 2 & 3 were handling its affair they become responsible. To buttress the said submission, the learned counsel for the complainant drew the attention of the Court to a decision of the Apex Court in the case of Ram Narayan Popli Vs. Central Bureau of Investigation: (2003) 3 SCC 641, wherein it was observed that: "the term "entrustment" is not necessarily a term of law. It may have different implications in different contexts. In its most general signification all it imports is the handing over possession for some purpose which may not imply the conferring of any proprietary right at all." Attention was also drawn to an observation made in the judgment of the aforesaid case, where it was observed that: "to establish the charge of criminal breach of trust, the prosecution is not obliged to prove the precise mode of conversion, misappropriation or misapplication by the accused of the property entrusted to him or over which he has dominion. The principal ingredient of the offence being dishonest misappropriation or conversion which may not ordinarily be a matter of direct proof, entrustment of property and failure in breach of an obligation to account for the property entrusted if proved, may, in the light of other circumstances, justifiably lead to an inference of dishonest misappropriation or conversion”.

Question:

X tracks down an expensive necklace on the road. Not knowing to whom it belongs. X sells it promptly to a jeweller without attempting to find the owner or submitting the necklace to the authorities. Decide the liability of X.

Option: 1

Extortion


Option: 2

Criminal breach of trust


Option: 3

Theft


Option: 4

Criminal misappropriation of Property


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