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Master your CLAT preparation with the most sought-after resource i.e., CLAT 2022 question paper! For any law aspirant, learning about the DNA of the examination from the previous year's papers is the base of success. This is an all-inclusive package consisting of the CLAT 2022 Question Paper with solutions curated from experts, detailed explanations along set-wise answer keys. Deep dive into the question patterns, marking scheme, and difficulty level at every section of Legal Reasoning to Quantitative Techniques-and learn the most hidden things behind every question in detail. What makes the resource special is the painstakingly designed analysis of every question so that a candidate not only learns to identify 'what' but also discovers the 'why' at the back of every response. Be it the launchpad for your CLAT preparation or the fine-tuning of your strategy of preparation, this question paper along with its detailed solution is your ultimate practice work. Download the PDF and take the most significant strides towards your dream law school right away!
CLAT 2022 Question Paper PDF | Download PDF |
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The CLAT Question Paper 2022 consists of 150 multiple-choice questions covering the following topics that candidates must understand: General Knowledge & Current Affairs, English comprehension, Legal thinking, Logical thinking, and Quantitative Techniques. The following is a general summary of the question types seen in the CLAT 2022 question papers:
Sections | Good Attempts | Difficulty Level | No. of Questions | Important Topics |
---|---|---|---|---|
English | 21-22 | Easy but lengthy | 6 Comprehensions with 5 questions each i.e. 30 MCQs | Five of the comprehensions were based on non-fiction (journals, newspapers, etc.), and one was based on fiction (Sir Arthur Conan Doyle's works). The questions were simple and predicated on comprehension knowledge. |
General knowledge | 25-26 | Difficult | 7 Comprehensions with 5 questions each i.e. 35 MCQs | Understandings were predicated on the following: the Gandhi Peace Prize; Faith for Right Mechanism; Global Water Day; Chabahar Day/INSTC; Ramsar Sites/World Wetland Day; Indo-China disengagement; and Covid-19 Vaccines Maitri. |
Quantitative aptitude | 8-9 | Moderate | 15 MCQs | Exam questions assessed applicants' understanding of topics related to arithmetic, averages, percentages, ratios, profit and loss, revenue and expenses, and simplifications. |
Legal Reasoning | 33-34 | Very Difficult | 8 Comprehensions with 5 questions each i.e. 40 MCQs | Law of Contracts, Hindu Marriage Act, Volenti Non-fit Injuria, and other passages were mentioned. The majority of test takers found the portion to be somewhat challenging and intricate. |
Logical reasoning | 22-25 | Moderate | 6 Comprehensions with 5 questions each i.e. 30 MCQs | One comprehension each on the socioeconomic position in schools, the influence of climate change on Asia, and India and its neighbours were based on COVID-19. The majority of the queries concerned conclusions, deductions, and inferences. |
Overall | 100+ | Moderate | 150 |
As per the CLAT exam pattern, the paper is bifurcated into 5 sections. Now, let's examine the thorough analysis for every section of CLAT 2022 Question papers:
1. English - Reading Comprehension - Certain questions were undoubtedly unclear. RC was rather simple, with long portions; it took about 25–27 minutes to try and finish the full part. Six paragraphs in all, each with five questions, were included. Three of the questions dealt with tones, while three more dealt with figures of speech. A decent effort would be between 25 and 26 questions or a score of 21 and 22.
2. Current Affairs including General Knowledge - The student's general assessment is " strange and Challenging." We concur! Although students tormented themselves by reading editorials and newspapers all year long, the General Knowledge portion did not go as planned. We'll just refer to it as CLAT's surprise for this year. The majority of the inquiries came from 2020 and 2021. There were altogether 7 passages with 5 questions each. The portion was somewhat challenging overall. An optimum attempt of 30-31 points and a score of 25+ would be regarded as good.
3. Quantitative Aptitude - This time, no mistakes. Simple portion. There were three sets totalling fifteen questions. A student would have easily received between eight and ten marks if they had tackled this portion instead of avoiding it completely.
4. Legal Reasoning - We would refer to this portion as "Easy to Moderate." Students who don't agree would be those who didn't pay close attention to the first learning guideline, which is to "Understand the concept." With eight passages totalling forty questions, this portion might be considered easy to moderate. All of the sections were based on some of the most fundamental legal ideas. A decent score might be defined as 28–30 with an optimal effort of 34–35 questions. The stretch took between 35 and 37 minutes to finish because of its length.
5. Logical Reasoning - Time management is crucial in this situation. Tough questions and brief paragraphs characterise this portion of the CLAT 2022. This year's version of the part was more difficult than the previous one. If one could devote 30 minutes to this subject, a score of 16–18 out of 30 questions over 6 sections, with an optimal effort of 22–25 questions, may be deemed satisfactory.
The CLAT 2022 Question Paper aids applicants in comprehending the most recent CLAT syllabus, format, key chapters, and subjects. June 20, 2022, saw the publication of the CLAT 2022 question paper and answer key. The CLAT 2022 question papers PDF is available for download here for candidates.
Passage - Public speaking is a powerful real-life skill. Over the centuries, impressive speeches made by people from various walks of life have helped to change hearts, and minds and shape the world as we see it today. Speeches that are delivered with intense emotions and conviction can infuse compassion and forgiveness; elevate levels of hatred and destruction; and break or unite nations. On October 5, in 1877 in the mountains of Montana Territory, when Chief Joseph surrendered to General Nelson A. Miles, the former gave a Surrender Speech. The speech included these words:It is cold, and we have no blankets; the little children are freezing to death. I want time to look for my children and see how many of them I can find. Maybe I shall find them among the dead. Hear me, my Chiefs! I am tired; my heart is sick and sad. From where the sun now stands I will fight no more forever." The heart-wrenching speech bared the grief and misery of the speaker, and those subjected to overwhelming hardships. During World War II, the speech We Shall Fight on the Beaches delivered by Winston Churchill on June 4, 1940, is considered a high-powered speech that strengthened the determination of those present in the House of Commons. In the speech, he said, Even though large tracts of Europe and many old and famous States have fallen or may fall into the grip of the Gestapo and all the odious apparatus of Nazi rule, we shall not flag or fail. We shall go on to the end, we shall fight in France, we shall fight on the seas and oceans, we shall fight with growing confidence and growing strength in the air, we shall defend our island, whatever the cost may be, we shall fight on the beaches, we shall fight on the landing grounds, we shall fight in the fields and in the streets, we shall fight in the hills;" In 1950, William Faulkner was honoured with a Nobel Prize for his significant contributions to the American novel. This was the time when the Soviet Union had found the possible implications of the use of the atomic bomb, and people had begun to live in fear of annihilation. In his Nobel Prize Acceptance Speech, Faulkner urged writers of various genres to think and write beyond the fear of destruction, and instead write materials that would lift the human spirit. The powerful message included:I believe that man will not merely endure: he will prevail. He is immortal, not because he alone among creatures has an inexhaustible voice, but because he has a soul, a spirit capable of compassion and sacrifice and endurance. The poet's, the writer's, duty is to write about these things. It is his privilege to help man endure by lifting his heart, by reminding him of the courage and honour and hope and pride and compassion and pity and sacrifice which have been the glories of his past. The poet's voice need not merely be the record of man, it can be one of the props, the pillars to help him endure and prevail." Undoubtedly, effective speeches have a long-lasting impact on the minds of the listeners, and they elevate the levels of awareness or actions the speaker intends to raise or catalyze.
Question 1: The main idea of the passage is that
(A) All leaders should be accomplished public speakers.
(B) An impactful speech can convey a strong message to the listeners.
(C) A speech should sound pleasing to the ears of the listeners.
(D) Public speakers should be bold and argumentative.
Solution: The passage talks about the impact of public speaking on the listeners. The partnership is the key element of ones action to show how he idolises the idea. Hence, option b is the correct answer.
Question 2:The tone of the Surrender Speech is
(A) Satiric
(B) Optimistic
(C) Poignant
(D) Narcissistic
Solution: The surrender speech is certainly filled with emotions and so it is poignant. Hence, option c is perfectly set with the passage.
Question 3: It is evident that through his speech, Churchill wished to __________ his countrymen __________.
(A) Inform, about the challenges that arise in a war-torn country.
(B) Warn, against the futility of war.
(C) Remind, how their endeavours to fight against the Nazi rule had failed miserably.
(D) Reassure, that they would combat fiercely against their enemy under all circumstances.
Solution: Refer to Churchill's speech in the fourth paragraph where Churchill encourages his followers to fight. his words ignited the flame amongst the listeners. Thus option d is correct.
Question 4: Which one of the following is the least likely to be used to describe Churchill?
(A) Resolute
(B) Undaunted
(C) Complacent
(D) Unwavering
Solution: In the passage provided options A, B, and C are mentioned in the passage and describe him thus option d is the correct answer.
Question 5: In the sentence, The poet's voice need not merely be the record of man, it can be one of the props, the pillars to help him endure and prevail, Faulkner has used _________ to convey the power of a poet's writings.
(A) A metaphor
(B) A simile
(C) An onomatopoeia
(D) A transferred epithet
Solution: In the passage, the poet's voice is indirectly compared with a pillar. The figure of speech that is used is a metaphor and hence option A is correct.
Passage - When we hear the name SPACE, only one organization comes to mind: the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO). The Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO), located in Bengaluru, is the country's first space agency. ISRO was founded in 1969 with the goal of developing and utilizing space technology for national development while also conducting planetary exploration and space science research. The space research operations began in India in the early 1960s, at a time when satellite applications were still in the experimental stages in the United States. Dr. Vikram Sarabhai, the founding father of India's space programme, rapidly recognized the benefits of space technologies after the live transmission of the Tokyo Olympic Games across the Pacific by the American satellite Syncom demonstrated the power of communication satellites. The ISRO has launched various spacecraft like the Chandrayaan, Astrosat, Microsat, GSAT etc. The Government of India has also approved a regional spaceborne navigation system, which will consist of seven satellites. Out of these, four of them will be placed in a geosynchronous inclined orbit of 29° relative to the equatorial plane. Such an arrangement would mean all seven satellites would have continuous radio visibility with Indian control stations.
Question: Name the first dedicated mission launched by ISRO for studying the celestial sources in X-ray, optical and UV spectral bands simultaneously
(A) Amazonia
(B) Astrosat
(C) Gaganyaan
(D) Lunar Polar Exploration Mission
Solution: Astrosat is India's first dedicated wavelength space telescope. Option B is correct.
Question 2: APPLE, the first communication satellite of ISRO was launched from
(A) Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota
(B) TERLS, Thiruvananthapuram
(C) Kourou, French Guiana
(D) SSLV Launching Station, Tamil Nadu
Solution: APPLE was an experimental communication satellite successfully launched by Ariane-1 from Korou, French Guinea on 19/06/1981; hence option c is correct
Question 3: Name the spacecraft that has been successfully sent into space to probe the planets in the solar system
(A) Sputnik 19
(B) Cosmos 482
(C) Pioneer-E
(D) Mariner 10
Solution: Mariner 10 was the first spacecraft sent to the planet Mercury the first mission to explore planets. Hence option d is correct.
Question 4: The first successful Nuclear Bomb test conducted by India in 1974, is called the:
(A) Prithvi
(B) Pokhran-II
(C) Smiling Buddha
(D) Surya
Solution The first successful Nuclear Bomb test conducted by India in 1974, is called the smiling buddha. Hence option c is correct.
Question 5: NaviC covers India and region extending:
(A) 1,500 Km
(B) 2,000 Km
(C) 7,000 Km
(D) 1,000 Km
Solution: NaviC covers India and a region extending 1500 km. Hence option A is correct.
Passage - Writ is a public law remedy. It refers to a formal, written order issued by a judicial authority directing an individual or authority to do or refrain from doing an act. The High Court, while exercising its power of judicial review, does not act as an appellate body. It is concerned with the illegality, irrationality and procedural impropriety of an order passed by the State or a Statutory Authority. A High Court is empowered to issue directions, orders or writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights and for any other purpose. The writ jurisdiction of High Court is discretionary and equitable. A writ of mandamus is issued by a court commanding a public authority to perform a public duty belonging to its office. It can be issued only when a legal duty is imposed on the authority and the petitioner has right to compel the performance of such duty. Writ of mandamus is requested to be issued, inter alia, to compel the performance of public duties which may be administrative, ministerial or statutory in nature. A writ of mandamus may be issued in favour of a person who establishes a legal right in himself. It may be issued against a person who has a mandatory legal duty to perform, but has failed or has neglected to do so. Such a legal duty emanates by operation of law. The writ of mandamus is most extensive in regard to its remedial nature. The object of the mandamus is to prevent disorder emanating from failure of justice and is required to be granted in all cases where the law has established no specific remedy.
Question 1: The government of a state made a rule to make it discretionary to grant dearness allowance to its employees. One of the employees filed a writ petition seeking a mandamus to compel the government to grant dearness allowance. In the given situation, which of the following statements is true?
(A) Writ of mandamus cannot be granted as no legal duty was imposed on the government to grant dearness allowance.
(B) Writ of mandamus cannot be granted as a statutory right was conferred on the employee to receive dearness allowance.
(C) Writ of mandamus can be granted as it is a public law remedy.
(D) Writ of mandamus can be granted as it is a discretionary remedy.
Solution: Writ of mandamus cannot be granted as no legal duty was imposed on the government to grant dearness allowance. The writ of mandamus is applied only when there is a legal duty imposed on the public office/officers. Here, there is no such situation. Thus cannot be attracted.
Question 2: A public-spirited citizen filed a writ petition seeking a mandamus to compel the government to make a law to curb the ill effects of climate change. In the given situation, which of the following statements is true?
(A) Writ of mandamus can be granted as it is an equitable remedy.
(B) Writ of mandamus cannot be granted as no legal duty is imposed on the government to pass a law to curb the ill effects of climate change.
(C) Writ of mandamus can be granted as it is a discretionary remedy.
(D) Writ of mandamus cannot be granted as there is no violation of fundamental rights.
Solution: Writ of mandamus cannot be granted as no legal duty is imposed on the government to pass a law to curb the ill effects of climate change. The writ mandates that there shall be legal duty but as seen over this issue it is a request, not a legal duty imposed onto the government thus writ cannot be issued by the courts.
Question 3: Mr. A and Mr. B are parties to a contract of sale of goods. Upon breach of contractual obligations by Mr A, Mr B filed a writ petition seeking a mandamus to compel Mr A to perform his obligations under the contract. In the given situation, which of the following statements is true?
(A) Writ of mandamus can be granted as it is a discretionary remedy.
(B) Writ of mandamus cannot be granted as there is no violation of fundamental rights.
(C) Writ of mandamus cannot be granted as Mr.B's right under the contract is a private right.
(D) Writ of mandamus can be granted as there is no statutory duty imposed on Mr A to fulfil his contractual obligations.
Solution: Writ of mandamus cannot be granted as Mr. B's right under the contract is a private right. The liability is contractual not the part of writ thus the writ cannot be attracted to this situation.
Question 4: A licensing officer is under a statutory duty to issue a license to an applicant who fulfils the conditions prescribed for the issue of such license. Mr. X, an applicant, fulfilled all the conditions prescribed for the issue of such license, but his application for issuance of license was rejected by the licensing officer. In the given situation, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Writ of mandamus can be granted compelling the license officer to issue the license.
(B) Writ of mandamus cannot be granted compelling the licensing officer to issue the license as there is no violation of fundamental rights.
(C) Writ of mandamus can be granted as it is the discretion of the licensing officer to grant the license.
(D) Writ of mandamus cannot be granted compelling the licensing officer to issue the license as there is no violation of public duty.
Solution: Writ of mandamus can be granted compelling the license officer to issue the license. In this situation, the person is a public officer and public authority thus writ of mandamus can be applied over this officer and the order of the court is valid.
Question 5: Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(A) Writ of mandamus may be issued in favour of a person who establishes the existence of a legal right.
(B) Writ of mandamus may be issued against a person or authority who has a mandatory duty to perform but has failed or has neglected to do so.
(C) Writ of mandamus is purported to prevent disorder emanating from failure of justice.
(D) Writ of mandamus may be requested to be issued to compel the performance of private duties which may be administrative, ministerial or statutory in nature.
Solution: A writ of mandamus may be requested to be issued to compel the performance of private duties which may be administrative, ministerial or statutory. The writ of mandamus can only be applied to public offices not private be it of any kind. Mandamus means we command, the courts command it to public offices with the legal duty to compel.
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In comparison to other years, the CLAT 2022 exam was rather simple overall. It took 150 minutes to complete 120 multiple-choice questions. The CLAT question paper from the previous year was impartial and uncontroversial. This year's questions were foreseeable and manageable, in contrast to the abundance of surprise ones from last year.
The questions were simple and predicated on comprehension knowledge. Law of Contracts, Hindu Marriage Act, Volenti Non-fit Injuria, and other passages were mentioned. The majority of test takers found the portion to be somewhat challenging and intricate.
Out of 150, the highest score for UG CLAT 2022 score was 121.
Out of 60,895 registrations, 56,472 applicants took the CLAT in 2022.
Hi,
Based on your previous year analysis, According to your CLAT Rank and category. There are many good colleges in which you have chance of getting a seat for 5 year BA LLB course. some of the best colleges in which you have chances of getting a seat are
You can predict more law colleges in which you can get admission using CLAT college predictor .
Hope this information will help you
Use CLAT predictor tool to know your chances in nlus and it also helps in filing choice preference which plays important role in admission counselling process.
However,this score is not good for NLU but keep an eye on later rounds if there is seat left mostly in tier 3 law colleges.
Even though it might seem hard, stay hopeful. Do your research, keep up with counseling,
Good luck!!
Hello Aditya,
With an OBC rank of 2,284 in CLAT 2025 and domicile of Uttar Pradesh , you have a good chance of securing admission to Dr. Ram Manohar Lohiya National Law University (RMLNLU), Lucknow under the state domicile reservation. The cutoff for RMLNLU varies each year depending on factors like the number of applicants, seat availability, and category-wise rank distribution.
For OBC candidates with UP domicile, the closing rank is usually higher than the general category cutoff but lower than other reserved categories like SC/ST. Based on previous years' trends, your rank falls well within the likely range for admission under the domicile and OBC category.
Steps to Confirm:
Your domicile gives you an added advantage, so make sure you properly document it during the application process.
I would recommend you to use
CLAT College Predictor Tool
by Careers360 to get the list of possible colleges you can get with your rank.
I hope this answer helps you. If you have more queries then feel free to share your questions with us we will be happy to assist you.
Thank you and wishing you all the best for your bright future.
Hello Kuldeep,
With a CLAT 2025 rank of 21,000 , admission into National Law Universities (NLUs) is unlikely as the cutoff ranks for NLUs, even for reserved categories, generally close much earlier. However, several private law colleges and universities accept CLAT scores and may offer you admission. Some of these colleges include:
UPES Dehradun
Known for specialized law courses in energy, corporate, and technology law.
NMIMS School of Law, Mumbai
Offers good placement opportunities and infrastructure.
MIT World Peace University, Pune
Offers modern legal education with good campus facilities.
Alliance University, Bangalore
Recognized for its legal programs and vibrant campus life.
Christ University, Bangalore (if eligible through other criteria)
May consider CLAT scores in combination with its internal processes.
Additionally, private universities like
Amity Law School
,
ICFAI Law School
, and
Sharda University
also accept students with CLAT scores at this rank. Ensure you confirm individual college admission criteria and deadlines, as some might also have alternate pathways for admission.
I would recommend you to use CLAT College Predictor Tool by Careers360 to get the list of possible colleges you can get with your rank.
I hope this answer helps you. If you have more queries then feel free to share your questions with us we will be happy to assist you.
Thank you and wishing you all the best for your bright future.
Hello,
Based on your AIR under PwD rank of 229 in CLAT, here’s an analysis:
Counseling Eligibility : Yes, you are eligible for counseling with your PwD rank, as the CLAT counseling process includes reserved categories like PwD.
NALSAR Hyderabad :
Probable Outcome :
Action : Participate in counseling and explore options at other NLUs as well.
You can also use the CLAT college predictor tool to predict which college you can get based on your score or rank.
Hope it helps !
A lawyer is a professional who practises law. An Individual in the lawyer career path defends his or her client's cases and makes arguments on his or her behalf in both criminal and civil proceedings. A lawyer may advise and assist clients on how they should handle their legal issues. An individual as a career in law in India is considered one of the most sought-after careers.
A lawyer's job requires inhibiting skills. It involves practical applications of abstract legal theories and knowledge to solve specialised individual problems or to facilitate the interests of those who hire a lawyer to perform legal services. Here, in this article, we will discuss how to become a lawyer after 10th, is lawyer a good career in India, and how to become a lawyer in India.
Are you searching for a civil lawyer job description? A civil lawyer is a law professional who deals with disputes that come under civil law. Civil law is applicable to issues related t property and business disputes, family disputes, and torts. A tort can be defined as a civil wrong that causes the other person harm or injury. A Civil lawyer handles disputes regarding personal injury, family relationships, real estate, and employment. A career as a civil lawyer requires working with government entities and business institutions.
Individuals in the human rights lawyer career path are legal professionals responsible for advocating for people whose inherent dignity has been violated and who have suffered a lot of injustice. They take cases to defend the human rights of minorities, vulnerable populations, the LGBTQI community, indigenous people and others.
A criminal lawyer is a lawyer who specialises in the field of crimes and punishments. Individuals who have been accused of committing a crime are guided by a criminal lawyer. Bail bond hearings, plea bargains, trials, dismissal hearings, appeals, and post-conviction procedures are all part of his or her work. Criminal law is the body of law that describes criminal acts, governs the arrest, prosecution, and trial of offenders, and defines the sentences and correctional options that are available to criminals.
Family lawyers are required to assist a client in resolving any family-related problem. In general, family lawyers operate as mediators between family members when conflicts arise. Individuals who opt for a career as Family Lawyer is charged with drafting prenuptial agreements to protect someone's financial interests prior to marriage, consulting on grounds for impeachment or civil union separation, and drafting separation agreements.
Cyber law careers deal with cyber law job opportunities concerning cybercrimes of all aspects such as cyberbullying, cyber frauds, cyber stalking, sharing personal information without consent, intellectual property and intellectual property, transactions, and freedom of speech.
An immigration lawyer is responsible for representing the individuals (clients) involved in the immigration process that includes legal, and illegal citizens and refugees who want to reside in the country, start a business or get employment.
A career as Government Lawyer is a professional who deals with law and requires to work for the government. He or she is required to work for either the state government or central government and is also known as Advocate General of the state and attorney general. A career as Government Lawyer requires one to work on behalf of government ministers and administrative staff. He or she gives legal advice and provides legal services in the public interest.
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