CLAT GK Questions with Answer PDF 2025

CLAT GK Questions with Answer PDF 2025

Edited By Ritika Jonwal | Updated on Dec 16, 2024 08:44 PM IST | #CLAT

Preparing for CLAT GK questions 2026 for the CLAT (Common Law Admission Test) can seem overwhelming, but with the right approach and dedication, it is achievable. CLAT GK questions 2026 has 25% weightage. In addition to the Legal Reasoning question, candidates must maintain accuracy and precision in the GK and Current Affairs sections to receive higher scores in the CLAT 2026. This article offers some tips to help you prepare for General knowledge questions for CLAT.

Preparation Tips For How To Solve GK Questions For CLAT

Listed below are a few preparation tips and tricks CLAT GK for solving questions in a given timeframe and scoring good marks in this section.

1. Understand the syllabus: Familiarise yourself with the topics that are covered in the general knowledge questions for CLAT. Topics like current affairs, History, Geography, Science, Economics, and Political science are all covered in the CLAT GK syllabus.

2. Consistently read famous periodicals and newspapers: Read publications like The Hindu and The Indian Express, as well as magazines like Pratiyogita Darpan will help you stay informed about important events happening in the country and around the world.

3. Follow news websites and apps: Follow news applications and websites: Use news websites and apps in addition to newspapers to acquire consistent updates on current affairs. Some popular options include BBC News, Reuters, and Hindustan Times.

4. Refer to GK books: There are numerous books available that specifically cater to the GK section of various competitive exams, including the CLAT. Some popular books include Lucent's General Knowledge, Manorama Yearbook, and Arihant’s Current Affairs Yearly.

5. Take online quizzes and tests: Practice is essential to perform well in GK. Take advantage of online quizzes and tests that are specifically designed for GK preparation. Websites like GKToday, Testbook, and Embibe offer GK quizzes and mock tests that can help you assess your knowledge and improve your performance.

6. Watch and listen to news discussions: Apart from reading, try watching news discussions and debates on TV channels or listening to news podcasts. This will give you a broader perspective on various issues and help you understand different viewpoints.

7. Make notes and revise regularly: As you go through various sources of GK, make sure to take notes. Organise the information in a way that makes it easy for you to revise. Regularly revise these notes to reinforce your learning.

8. Solve previous years' question papers and a lot of mock tests: Complete multiple mock tests and solve question papers from past years. To familiarise yourself with the format and kinds of questions asked in the CLAT GK segment, complete sample tests and questions of GK questions for CLAT 2026 with answers from previous years. For more practice, download the CLAT GK questions pdf. This pdf contains diverse types of CLAT Current Affairs questions which will help students to effectively manage their time during the exam.

9. Join coaching classes or e-courses: Enrol in coaching classes or online courses that are specifically designed to help you prepare for the general knowledge questions for CLAT 2026 exam if you feel the need for formal assistance. These seminars give you a wealth of study materials, professional guidance, and frequent practice exams to aid in the improvement of your knowledge and abilities.

10. Stay consistent: Lastly, consistency is key. Dedicate a fixed amount of time every day to GK preparation and stick to the schedule. Regular practice and revision will help you retain the information and perform well in the exam.

Remember, GK is a vast subject, so it is essential to have a systematic and holistic approach to cover the syllabus effectively. Best of luck with your preparation for general knowledge questions for CLAT.

Example Question - Current Affairs including General Knowledge

For your better understanding, Let us begin with the previous year's general knowledge questions for CLAT with answers for better conceptual clarity.

First, let's check the previous year - CLAT GK questions 2024 (Passage 1)

Direction:
On 7th October 2023, as armed conflict broke out between forsel and Hamas-led Palostinian militants from the Gaza Strip[o] after the latter launched a mult-pronged invation of southern israel. After clearing Hamas miltants, the foraeli military retaliated by conducting an extensive aerial bombardment campaign on Gazan targets and followed up with a largescale ground invasion of Gaza. More than 1,400 tsraelis, mostly chilians, and more than 10,000 Palestinians have been killed in the fighting Over 240 tsraelis and foretgn nationais were taken hostage and brought into the Gaza Strip.

The Hamas-led attack began in the moming of 7th October, as Palestinian militants in Gaza launchod a barrage of over 5,000 rockets against lisaeli cities and kibbutzim while some 3,000 Palestinian militants breached the Gaza-tirael barrier, Over 1,000 taraeli civilians wore killed in more than a dozen massacres, including the Fe im music festival massacre. and military bases were attacked, Over 200 civilians and israeli soldiers were captured or abducted and taken to the Gaza Strip. At least 44 countries, mostly from the Western world, characterized the massacres of civilians as terrorism. Hamas declared that the irvasion was carried out in response to the "desecration of the Al-Aqsa Mosque", the Gaza Strip blockade, the construction of Israeli settlements, and Israell settler violence against Palestinians in the West Bank.

Israel declared a state of war on 8th October, and its response to the attack has seen the most significant military escalation in the region since the Yom Kippur War. The current hostilities constitute the fifth war of the Gaza-Israel conflict, which is part of the broader IsraelsPalestinian conflict. In 2023, before the offensive started, an uptick in Israeli-Palestinian violence saw at least 247 Palestinians, 32 Israelis, and two foreigners killed. According to the Gaza Health Ministry, as of 6 November, over 10,000 Palestinians had been killed, including 79 UNAWA staff. Israel dropped a total of 6,000 bombs during the first six days of the conflict - nearly double the number of bombs dropped by the American-led CJTF-OIR in one month during the War against the Istamic State. There has been widespread killing of civilians, and human rights groups and a panel of United Nations special rapporteurs have accused both Israel and Hamas of war crimes.


Q1: What was the reaction of the international community to the killing of israeli civilians?

A.Condemned as terrorism by 44 countries

B.Ignored by most of the countries

C.Supported by the UN

D.Praised as a necessary measure by 10 countries

Correct Answer - Option A

Explanation - Over 44 countries, primarily representing the Western world, have collectively characterized the massacre of Israeli civilians as acts of terrorism. This unified stance from a diverse group of countries, predominantly from the Western world, emphasizes the global recognition of the importance of upholding principles of human rights, international law, and the protection of civilians in times of conflict.

Q2.Which of the following is not true about the historical context of the fisasi Hamas Contliet?

A. The Palestinian refugees started setting under Otoman rule in the late 19th Century

B. Hamas emerged during the first Intifada in the late 1980s

C. Hamas was formally known as the Istamio Aesistance Movement

D. First Intifada was a Palestinian uprising against Israell rule.

Correct Answer - Option A

Explanation - Palestinian refugees primarily refer to those displaced as a result of the Arab-Israeli conflicts, particularly the 1948 Arab-Israeli War (Nakba) and the 1967 Six-Day War. These conflicts led to the displacement of a significant number of Palestinians, many of whom sought refuge in neighbouring countries.

Q3.What has been the response of the Israell military to the Hamas-led attack?

A. Declared a state of war and launched a ground invasion

B. Conducted an aerial bombardment campaign only

C. Asked for international intervention

D. Captured and imprisoned the militants responsible

Correct Answer - Option A

Explanation - In response to the attack, the Israeli military executed a robust counteroffensive, employing a comprehensive aerial bombardment campaign aimed at various targets in the Gaza Strip. This intensive airstrike operation was subsequently accompanied by a substantial ground invasion, reflecting a significant escalation in military engagement in the Gaza region.

Q5.What is the current hostilities known as in the Gaza-Israel conflict?

A. Sixth war

B. Fitth war

C. Seventh war

D. Fourth war

Correct Answer - Option B

Explanation - The ongoing hostilities mark the fifth war in the complex Gaza-Israel conflict. This conflict has been characterized by a series of confrontations, each representing a distinct phase in the historical and geopolitical dynamics between Gaza and Israel.

Q6.What is the current hostilities known as in the Gaza-Israel conflict?

A. Sixth war

B. Fitth war

C. Seventh war

D. Fourth war

Correct Answer - Option B

Explanation - The ongoing hostilities mark the fifth war in the complex Gaza-Israel conflict. This conflict has been characterized by a series of confrontations, each representing a distinct phase in the historical and geopolitical dynamics between Gaza and Israel.

Passage 2

The seminal ruling in Kesavananda Bharati, in which the Supreme Court laid down the "[1]" doctrine on the limits of Parliament's power to amend the Constitution, completes 50 years. Over the decades, the "[1]" doctrine has been criticised repeatedly - for diluting the principle of separation of powers and undermining the sovereignty of Parliament, and as a vague and subjective form of judicial review.

A scrutiny of the application of the doctrine over the past half-century reveals a telling pattern: although the highest court has invoked "[1]" sparingly, it has mostly struck down amendments where judicial powers have been curtailed.

Since 1973, the year of the Kesavananda Bharati judgement, the Constitution has been amended more than 60 times. In these five decades, the Supreme Court has tested constitutional amendments against the doctrine of "[1]" in at least 16 cases,

In nine of these 16 cases, the Supreme Court has upheld constitutional amendments that had been challenged on grounds of violation of the "[1]" doctrine. Six of these cases relate to reservations - including the quota for Other Backward Classes (OBC) and Economically Weaker Section (EWS), and reservations in promotions.

1. Who was Kesavananda Bharati?

  1. A lawyer from kerala

  2. A religious leader for kasargod

  3. A politician from karnataka

  4. A judge of Supreme Court

Correct answer - Option(B)

Explanation: A religious leader from Kasargod. He was the head of edneer mutt, Hindu monastery in Kasaragod Kerala he was involved in the landmark constitutional case challenging the constitution in 29 Amendment Act 1972.

2. Which of the following amendments added the 9th schedule?

  1. 1st amendment

  2. 2nd amendment

  3. 42nd amendment

  4. 44th amendment

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Correct answer - Option(A)

Explanation: The 9 schedule was added to the Constitution by the first amendment in 1951. It provided a protective umbrella to land Reform laws shielding them from being challenged and court.

3. Which of the following fundamental rights did Kesavananda Bharati argue were violated by the 29th amendment act 1972?

  1. Doctrine of separation of powers

  2. Doctrine of basic structure

  3. Doctrine of stare decisis

  4. Doctrine of Parliamentary supremacy

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Correct answer - Option B

Explanation: Right to religion and right to property. According to Kesavananda Bharati, the Constitution's 29th Amendment Act of 1972 breached Article 25's fundamental right to religion, Article 26's guarantee of religious freedom, and Article 31's guarantee of property rights.

4. Which of the following is not considered part of the basic structure of the constitution?

  1. Supremacy of the constitution

  2. Secular character of the constitution

  3. Unlimited power of the Parliament to amend constitution

  4. Power of the Indian Supreme court under article 32

Correct answer - Option(C)

Explanation: Unlimited power of the Parliament to amend the constitution. Unlimited power of Parliament to amend the constitution is not considered as the basic structure of the constitution.

5. Which of the following Constitution Amendment was struck down by the Supreme Court on the strengthening judicial independence

  1. Fifty first amendment act

  2. Ninety ninth amendment act

  3. One hundredth amendment act

  4. One hundredth and first amendment act

Correct answer - Option(B)

Explanation: The constitution 99 Amendment Act this amendment which established the National Judicial appointment Commission was struck down by the supreme court in 2015 full stop the Court ruled that the amendment which is considered as a basic feature of the constitution the 99 Amendment Act of 2014 aim to replace the existing collision system with enjoy AC which would have been responsible for the appointment and transfer of judges. However this amendment was subsequently struck down by the supreme court.

Passage 3 (CLAT 2021)

UNESCO New Delhi, along with the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) and other partners, organised a hybrid event with school children and teachers to celebrate 'World Water Day 2021. The event included felicitating the winners of a water conservation awareness programme, and screening of their winning animation short films, according to an official release. UNESCO launched this nation-wide programme for school children in India, in partnership with the National Mission for Clean Ganga, the United Schools Organization (USO), Water Digest and India based global animation major Toonz Media Group. Entitled 'H2000oh!-Waterwise program for children of India', this innovative initiative encouraged school students between the age of 6-14 years to submit story ideas for animated short films to raise awareness on water conservation and its sustainable use.

1. World Water Day is observed on

(A) April 20

(B) April 21

(C) March 22

(D) May 20

Correct answer - Option(C)

Explanation: In an effort to raise youth and kid awareness of cleanliness and the need of clean rivers, the National Mission for Clean Ganga has been engaging with various partners. Hence, every year on March 22, World Water Day is marked.

2. The theme of World Water Day 2021 was

(A) Valuing Water

(B) Conserving Water

(C) Saving Water

(D) Drinking Water

Correct answer - Option(A)

Explanation: The value of water and the inherent qualities of rivers was the focus of World Water Day in 2021. It has been seen in recent years that pollution has made its way up to the top 10.

3. On the occasion of World Water Day 2021, Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched a campaign named

(A) Jal Shakti Abhiyan: Purify the Rivers.

(B) Jal Shakti Abhiyan: Catch the Rain

(C) Jal Shakti Abhiyan: No More Water Woes.

(D) Jal Shakti Abhiyan: Become Water Wise.

Correct answer - Option(B)

Explanation: Jal Shakti Abhiyan, also known as the Water Power Campaign, is a government initiative launched in 2019 in India with the objective of conserving and managing water resources. The campaign focuses on the conservation and harvesting of rainwater, aiming to make every drop of rain count.

4. The National Water Mission (NWM) has been constituted under the National Action Plan for Climate Change (NAPCC) launched by the Prime Minister of India in 2009. Which of the following is not a goal of the NWM?

(A) Comprehensive water database in public domain and assessment of the impact of climate change on water resources.

(B) Promotion of citizen and state actions for water conservation, augmentation and preservation.

(C) Comprehensive water database in public domain and assessment of the impact of water resources on climate change.

(D) Increasing water use efficiency by 20%.

Correct answer - Option(C)

Explanation: Overall, Jal Shakti Abhiyan aims to bring about a swift and sustainable transformation in water management practices across the country by harnessing the power of rainwater and promoting responsible water usage.

5. In 2019, the Ministry of Jal Shakti was formed after merging the Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation and the Ministry of

(A) Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation.

(B) Ports. Shipping and Waterways.

(C) Water Conservation and Ganga Rejuvenation.

(D) Inland Waterways and Ganga Rejuvenation.

Correct answer - Option(A)

Explanation: The merge aims to promote water security in various sectors including agriculture, industry, and domestic use. It recognizes that water scarcity is a growing concern and poses a significant challenge for sustainable development. Therefore, Jal Shakti Abhiyan strives to address this issue by creating a comprehensive water management plan and spreading awareness about water conservation. The ministry of janshakti was formed after merging the ministry of drinking water and sanitation with the Ministry of Water Resources water development and Ganga resemination in the year 2019.

You may also check - CLAT PYQ

Passage 4

The Indian government has approved the construction of the country's first hyperloop test track in Gujarat. The track will be built by Virgin Hyperloop One, a company developing a new form of high-speed transportation that uses a vacuum tube to transport pods up to 760 miles per hour.

The test track will be 10 kilometres long and will be used to test the safety and performance of Virgin Hyperloop One's technology. The company hopes to start construction on the track in 2024 and to have it operational by 2025.

If successful, the test track could pave the way for constructing a commercial hyperloop system in India. Hyperloop systems could revolutionise transportation in India, connecting major cities in a fraction of the time it currently takes to travel by train or plane.

1) Which company is developing the hyperloop technology?

(A) Virgin Hyperloop One

(B) SpaceX

(C) Hyperloop Transportation Technologies

(D) None of the above

Correct answer - Option(A)

Explanation: Hyperloop One (known from October 2017 to November 2022 as Virgin Hyperloop or Virgin Hyperloop One) is an American transportation technology company that works to commercialise the high-speed travel concept called the Hyperloop, a variant of the vacuum train. The company was established on June 1, 2014, and reorganised and renamed on October 12, 2017

2) Where will the first hyperloop test track in India be built?

(A) Gujarat

(B) Maharashtra

(C) Karnataka

(D) None of the above

Correct answer - Option(A)

Explanation: The first Hyperloop test track in India we built in Gujarat. It is said that if the Hyperloop works in India the journey duration would be reduced by n number of hours . it is said that the Journey between Mumbai to Pune would be of just 35 minutes.

3) What is the maximum speed of a hyperloop pod?

(A) 760 miles per hour

(B) 500 miles per hour

(C) 300 miles per hour

(D) 100 miles per hour

Correct answer - Option(A)

Explanation: The Hyperloop is a fast way to connect the dots on the geographical map and the maximum speed of Hyperloop forward would be 760 miles per hour in kilometres per hour it would be 1223.10.

4) What are the potential benefits of a hyperloop system in India?

(A) Faster transportation between major cities

(B) Reduced traffic congestion

(C) Reduced pollution

(D) All of the above

Correct answer - Option(D)

Explanation: The fastest transportation between major industries and the reduction of traffic congestion would be the two main benefits of the Hyperloop system in India, which would also be beneficial given that it is the country with the highest population.

5) When is India's first hyperloop test track expected to be operational?

(A) 2024

(B) 2025

(C) 2026

(D) 2027

Correct answer - Option(B)

Explanation: According to data released by the Indian government, the country's first test track for the hyperloop is anticipated to be operational by 2025.

Passage 5

In a path-breaking order, the Supreme Court on Wednesday put on hold the colonial-era penal law on sedition till an “appropriate” government forum re-examines it and directed the Centre and states to not register any fresh FIR invoking the offence. Besides lodging FIRs, ongoing probes, pending trials, and all proceedings under the sedition law across the country will also be held in abeyance. “This Court is cognizant of the security interests and integrity of the State on one hand, and the civil liberties of citizens on the other. There is a requirement to balance both sets of considerations, which is a difficult exercise.”

[The Print]

1. Sedition falls under which section of the Indian Penal Code

a. Section 121

b. Section 121

c. Section 124

d. Section 124A

Correct answer - Option(d)

Explanation: Under section 124a of Indian penal code 1860 the sedition can be seen. The definition says that, "Whoever, by words, either spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible representation, or otherwise, brings or attempts to bring into hatred or contempt, or excites or attempts to excite"

2. Who is the current Chief Justice of India?

a. NV Ramana

b. DY Chandrachud

c. UU Lalit

d. KM Joseph

Correct answer - Option(b)

Explanation: DY Chandrachud has served as the 50th and current Chief Justice of India since November 2022 and as a justice of the Supreme Court of India since may 2016.

3. Who drafted the Sedition Law?

a. William Bentinck

b. Thomas Macauley

c. Matthew Arnold

d. Warren Hastings

Correct answer - Option(b)

Explanation: was first drafted by Thomas Macauley in 1837 and was added to the Indian penal code in 1870 by James Stephen as section 124 A.

4. When was the Indian Penal Code introduced in India?

a. 1860

b. 1948

c. 1956

d. 1889

Correct answer - Option(a)

Explanation: the IPC is the law that defines the punishment of tenses as well as their punishment or penalties or both it apply to any citizen or person of Indian Origin. It is divided into 23 chapters and has 500 11 sections; it was introduced in India in the year 1860.

Also check -

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

1. What does it mean that CLAT GK includes current affairs?

Since it evaluates the candidate's acquaintance and comprehension of current events and developments on a national and worldwide level, the CLAT GK section's current affairs portion is quite important. It helps assess a candidate's ability to make wise decisions and remain current with society.

2. How can I stay current on the news regarding the CLAT GK?

Candidates can consult a variety of sources, including newspapers, online news sources, news apps, periodicals, and current affairs books, to stay current on current events. It is crucial to maintain a regular reading schedule and set aside time specifically for preparing for current events.

3. What are the main subject areas for CLAT GK?

Important books and authors, well-known people, government policies and initiatives, legal advancements, sports and prizes, science and technology, economics, and national and worldwide events are just a few of the significant topics to concentrate on for the CLAT GK exam. Accurately answering GK questions will benefit from having a thorough understanding of these subjects.

4. For the CLAT GK, is it required to learn facts and figures?

While memorization of specific facts and figures is not required, it might be useful to have a general awareness of the most significant numbers and statistics in relation to current affairs. Major statistics can be used to support responses or draw logical conclusions in response to particular GK section questions.

5. How can I perform better on the CLAT GK?

Candidates should concentrate on regular reading and make it a habit to remain current on current affairs in order to improve performance in the CLAT GK section. To comprehend the format and kinds of questions asked in CLAT GK, they can also complete practice exams and old exam papers. Additionally, taking part in online quizzes and mock tests might aid in assessing and enhancing performance.

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Questions related to CLAT

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Hello,

With an All India OBC rank of 202 in CLAT 2025, you have a strong chance of securing admission to several National Law Universities (NLUs). Based on previous years' cutoffs , consider the following:

  • Top NLUs:

    • NALSAR Hyderabad: Historically, OBC ranks up to 1,116 have been admitted.
    • NLIU Bhopal: OBC ranks up to 1,315 have secured seats in the BA LLB program.
  • Mid-Tier NLUs:

    • WBNUJS Kolkata: Admissions have been offered to OBC candidates with ranks up to 15,978 under state category reservations.
    • NLU Jodhpur: OBC ranks up to 1,261 have been accepted.
  • Other NLUs:

    • HNLU Raipur: OBC candidates with ranks up to 1,965 have gained admission.
    • GNLU Gandhinagar: OBC ranks up to 1,822 have been admitted.

Please note that cutoffs can vary each year based on factors like exam difficulty and seat availability. It's advisable to participate in the counseling process and stay updated with official announcements for the most accurate information.

You can also use the CLAT college predictor tool to predict which college you can get based on your score or rank.

Hope it helps !

Hello,

With an All India Rank (AIR) of 3722 and OBC rank of 573 in CLAT PG, you have a good possibility of getting admission to TRICHY NLU or other NLUs, although the probability depends on the cutoff trends for that year. According to past trends, TRICHY NLU's cutoff rank for OBC candidates would vary, but your rank is competitive enough to find a seat in the latter rounds of counseling, likely Round 2 or 3.

The cutoffs for NLUs like NLU Odisha, NLU Lucknow, and NLU Jodhpur may also be in your reach. Since cutoffs are always changing, keep an eye on the updates of official counseling. Depending on seat availability, given your rank, you might get a seat in these NLUs during the later rounds. Keep an eye on CLAT PG counseling and check for cutoff announcements to grab a seat in these NLUs.

You can make use of a CLAT College Predictor tool to estimate the chances of getting admission into TRICHY NLU or any other NLUs. Such tools will take into account your rank, category, and preferences to provide you with a list of NLUs where you are likely to secure a seat.

Hello

With a score of 77.25 in CLAT 2025 and an AIR of 4146 , along with your General category status and Jammu & Kashmir domicile , there might be a chance of getting into a National Law University (NLU) , though it largely depends on the specific NLU and its cutoff for that year .

Jammu & Kashmir Domicile : Some NLUs offer relaxation in cutoffs or reserved seats for candidates from J&K . This might improve your chances, especially in lower-ranked NLUs .

General Category : Being in the General category means you'll be competing against a broader pool of candidates, but the domicile could still provide an advantage in some NLUs.

It’s recommended to check the specific cutoffs of NLUs, as they can vary each year. You might have better chances in NLUs with relatively lower ranks, such as:

National Law University Odisha (NLUO)

Damodaram Sanjivayya National Law University (DSNLU), Visakhapatnam

Gujarat National Law University (GNLU), Gandhinagar

Also, consider keeping an eye on the counseling rounds, as sometimes seats are available in subsequent rounds.

If you are aiming for higher-ranked NLUs like NLSIU, NALSAR or NLUD, it might be a bit competitive with your current rank , but it's always good to explore other options like private law colleges and other state law universities as well .

You can check more  information link given below

https://law.careers360.com/clat-college-predictor

Thank you

Hello

In the CLAT (Common Law Admission Test) , the minimum score required for admission depends on several factors , including the category , the difficulty level of the exam and the participating universities' cutoffs for that year.

For the ST category, a score of 40 in CLAT might be on the lower side for gaining admission to top National Law Universities (NLUs) . However, you may still have chances for lower-ranked NLUs .

1. The overall cutoff trend for ST category : Cutoffs for reserved categories are generally lower than for the general category .

2. Number of candidates and competition in the ST category .

3. Vacant seats in NLUs during subsequent counseling rounds .

Check link for more details

https://law.careers360.com/articles/clat-st-cut-off

Thank you

Congratulations on your rank.

On this rank you may get

1. NLU ASSAM

2.HPNLU

3.DBRNLU

While top tier NLU like NLSIU Bangalore, NALSAR Hyderabad, WBNUJS are unlikely

Newer  and mid-tier NLUs like MNLU Nagpur, MPDNLU Jabalpur,  DSNLU vishakapatnam may be possible.

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Passage 1
Read the passage below and answer the following question.
Cheating is considered a criminal offence under the Indian Penal Code. It is done to gain profit or advantage from another person by using some deceitful means. The person who deceives another knows for the fact that it would place the other person in an unfair situation. Cheating as an offence can be made punishable under Section 420 of the IPC. Scope of Section 415 Cheating is defined under Section 415 of the Indian Penal Code as whoever fraudulently or dishonestly deceives a person to induce that person to deliver a property to any person or to consent to retain any property. If a person intentionally induces a person to do or omit to do any act which he would not have done if he was not deceived to do so and the act has caused harm to that person in body, mind, reputation, or property, then the person who fraudulently, dishonestly or intentionally induced the other person is said to cheat. Any dishonest concealment of facts that can deceive a person to do an act that he would not have done otherwise is also cheating within the meaning of this section. Essential Ingredients of Cheating requires · deception of any person. Fraudulently or dishonestly inducing that person to deliver any property to any person or to consent that any person shall retain any property; or · intentionally inducing a person to do or omit to do anything which he would not do or omit if he were not so deceived, and the act or omission causes or is likely to cause damage or harm to that person in body, mind, reputation or property.
Deceit– a tort arising from an untrue or false statement of facts which are made by a person, recklessly or knowingly, with an intention that it shall be acted upon by the other person, who would suffer damages as a result. 
Fraud – a false or untrue representation of the fact, that is made with the knowledge of its falsity or without the belief in its truth or a reckless statement that may or may not be true, with an intention to induce a person or individual to act independent of it with the result that the person acts on it and suffers damages and harm. In other words, it is a wrong act or criminal deception with an intention to result in financial or personal gain.
Question - 1 
D went to a moneylender, Z, for the loan. D intentionally pledges the gold article with Z taking the loan. D knows that the article is not made of gold. After a few days, D leaves the village. Decide.

 

Option: 1 None

Option: 2 None

Option: 3 None

Option: 4 None

Read the passage carefully and answer the question

The Contract should be performed by the promisor himself. However, in certain cases, it can also be performed by his agents or legal representatives. It all depends upon the intention of the parties. Normally a contract can be performed by the following persons. 

  1. Promisor himself: If from the nature of the contract it appears that it was the intention of the parties that the promise should be performed by the promisor himself, such promise must be performed by the promisor. This usually applies to contracts involving personal skill, task, or artwork. 
  2. Promisor or his Agent: Where the contract does not involve the personal skill of the promisor, the contract could be performed by the promisor himself or by any competent person employed by him for the purpose, 
  3. Legal Representatives: The contracts which do not involve any personal skill or taste, may be performed by his legal representative after the death of the promisor.
  4. Third Person: In some cases, a contract may be performed by a third person provided the promisee accepts the arrangement. According to Section 41 of the Indian Contract Act, once the promisee accepts the performance from a third person, he cannot compel the promisor to perform the contract again. 
  5. Performance of Joint Promises: According to section 42 of the Indian Contract Act, when two or more persons have made a joint promise, the joint promisors must fulfill the promise jointly during their lifetime. And if any one of them dies, then his legal representatives and survivors must jointly fulfill the promise. 

Section 43 of the Indian Contract Act further provides that unless a contrary intention appears from the contract, each joint promisor may compel every other joint promisor to contribute equally to the performance of the promise. If any joint promisor makes a default in such contribution, the remaining joint promisors must bear the loss arising from such default in equal shares.

Question:

Aman received a box of chocolates from Basant and promised to pay Rupees 5000. Later on, A becomes bankrupt. Chetan who is a friend of Aman pays rupees 1000 to Besant on behalf of Aman. Aman is not aware of such a transaction. In civil court, insolvency proceedings have started against Aman. Meanwhile, Basant has also applied for a recovery of 5000 rupees. Decide.

Option: 1

Basant is entitled to recover the amount of 5000 from Aman.


Option: 2

Basant is entitled to recover the amount of 4000 from Aman.


Option: 3

Chetan is entitled to recover the amount of 1000 from Basant.


Option: 4

Basant cannot recover any amount from Aman as he has become insolvent.


Read the passage carefully and answer the question

The Contract should be performed by the promisor himself. However, in certain cases, it can also be performed by his agents or legal representatives. It all depends upon the intention of the parties. Normally a contract can be performed by the following persons. 

  1. Promisor himself: If from the nature of the contract it appears that it was the intention of the parties that the promise should be performed by the promisor himself, such promise must be performed by the promisor. This usually applies to contracts involving personal skill, task, or artwork. 
  2. Promisor or his Agent: Where the contract does not involve the personal skill of the promisor, the contract could be performed by the promisor himself or by any competent person employed by him for the purpose, 
  3. Legal Representatives: The contracts which do not involve any personal skill or taste, may be performed by his legal representative after the death of the promisor.
  4. Third Person: In some cases, a contract may be performed by a third person provided the promisee accepts the arrangement. According to Section 41 of the Indian Contract Act, once the promisee accepts the performance from a third person, he cannot compel the promisor to perform the contract again. 
  5. Performance of Joint Promises: According to section 42 of the Indian Contract Act, when two or more persons have made a joint promise, the joint promisors must fulfill the promise jointly during their lifetime. And if any one of them dies, then his legal representatives and survivors must jointly fulfill the promise. 

Section 43 of the Indian Contract Act further provides that unless a contrary intention appears from the contract, each joint promisor may compel every other joint promisor to contribute equally to the performance of the promise. If any joint promisor makes a default in such contribution, the remaining joint promisors must bear the loss arising from such default in equal shares.

Question:

K promises to paint a picture for L on a certain day, at a certain price. K dies before the day of the contract. Decide. 

Option: 1

The contract can be enforced by K’s representative 


Option: 2

The contract can be enforced by L


Option: 3

The contract can be enforced either by K’s representation or by L 


Option: 4

The contract cannot be enforced either by K’s representative, or L


Read the passage carefully and answer the question

The Contract should be performed by the promisor himself. However, in certain cases, it can also be performed by his agents or legal representatives. It all depends upon the intention of the parties. Normally a contract can be performed by the following persons. 

  1. Promisor himself: If from the nature of the contract it appears that it was the intention of the parties that the promise should be performed by the promisor himself, such promise must be performed by the promisor. This usually applies to contracts involving personal skill, task, or artwork. 
  2. Promisor or his Agent: Where the contract does not involve the personal skill of the promisor, the contract could be performed by the promisor himself or by any competent person employed by him for the purpose, 
  3. Legal Representatives: The contracts which do not involve any personal skill or taste, may be performed by his legal representative after the death of the promisor.
  4. Third Person: In some cases, a contract may be performed by a third person provided the promisee accepts the arrangement. According to Section 41 of the Indian Contract Act, once the promisee accepts the performance from a third person, he cannot compel the promisor to perform the contract again. 
  5. Performance of Joint Promises: According to section 42 of the Indian Contract Act, when two or more persons have made a joint promise, the joint promisors must fulfill the promise jointly during their lifetime. And if any one of them dies, then his legal representatives and survivors must jointly fulfill the promise. 

Section 43 of the Indian Contract Act further provides that unless a contrary intention appears from the contract, each joint promisor may compel every other joint promisor to contribute equally to the performance of the promise. If any joint promisor makes a default in such contribution, the remaining joint promisors must bear the loss arising from such default in equal shares.

Question:

Rohan has agreed to manage the catering services during the marriage of Sohan’s son Ramu. On the day of marriage, Rohan felt ill and sent his manager to the management of catering services. Ramu happily gets married to Tina and people appreciated the food and decoration of the event. When Rohan asked Sohan for the remaining amount, he denied it because Rohan himself had not managed so it is a breach. Decide.

 

Option: 1

Rohan is not entitled to get the remaining amount due to a breach of contract.


Option: 2

Rohan is entitled to sue Sohan for the remaining amount.


Option: 3

Rohan is entitled to sue Ramu because it was his marriage.


Option: 4

Instead of Rohan, his manager can only sue Sohan for the breach.


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

Natural justice is another name for common sense justice rules of natural justice are not in codified form these principles are embedded or ingrained or inbuilt in the conscience of human beings. It supplies the omission made in codified law and helps in the administration of justice. Natural justice is not only confined to ‘fairness’ it will take many shades and colours based on the context. Thus natural justice apart from ‘fairness’ also implies reasonableness, equity and equality. They are neither cast in a rigid mould nor can they be put in a legal straitjacket. These principles written by nature in the heart of mankind, they are immutable, inviolable, and inalienable.

It is true that the concept of natural justice is not very clear and, therefore, it is not possible to define it; yet the principles of natural justice are accepted and enforced. In the case of Ridge V. Baldwin Court observed that “in modern times have sometimes been expressed to the effect that natural justice is as vague as to be practically meaningless. But I would regard these as tainted by the perennial fallacy that because something cannot be cut and dried or nicely weighed or measured therefore it does not exist”. The term natural justice signifies fundamental rules of judicial procedure and fair play in action. According to Lord Widgery “the principles of natural justice were those fundamental rules; the breach will prevent justice from being seen to be done”. Earliest expression of ‘natural justice’ could be found in the philosophical expression of Roman Jurist (jus natural) and signified rules and principles for the conduct of man which were independent of enacted law or customs and could be discovered by the rational intelligence of man and would grow out of and conform to his nature.

The rule against bias that surfaced in 1610 in Dr Bonham's Casewhere Chief Justice Coke went so far as to say that the Court could declare an Act of Parliament void if it made a man as judge in his own cause, or otherwise ‘against common right and reason’. This was one of his grounds for disallowing the claim of the College of Physicians to fine and imprison Doctor Bonham, a Doctor of Physics of Cambridge University, for practising in the city of London without the licence of College of Physicians. The statute under which the College acted provided that fines should go half to the King half to the College so that the College had a financial interest in its own judgement and was judged in its own cause.

Question:

X is a student of a college and his father Y is a professor in the same college. In one instance, X is caught to be involved in unparliamentary activities inside the college campus. The enquiry committee is set up and Y is appointed as the head of the committee. Decide.

Option: 1

Y is a professor of the same college hence he can become a member of the enquiry committee


Option: 2

Y is X’s father hence he should not be a part of the enquiry committee


Option: 3

Y can be a part of the enquiry committee but cannot be its head


Option: 4

There is no rule that prevents the appointment of Y until he fulfils his function diligently


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

Natural justice is another name for common sense justice rules of natural justice are not in codified form these principles are embedded or ingrained or inbuilt in the conscience of human beings. It supplies the omission made in codified law and helps in the administration of justice. Natural justice is not only confined to ‘fairness’ it will take many shades and colours based on the context. Thus natural justice apart from ‘fairness’ also implies reasonableness, equity and equality. They are neither cast in a rigid mould nor can they be put in a legal straitjacket. These principles written by nature in the heart of mankind, they are immutable, inviolable, and inalienable.

It is true that the concept of natural justice is not very clear and, therefore, it is not possible to define it; yet the principles of natural justice are accepted and enforced. In the case of Ridge V. Baldwin Court observed that “in modern times have sometimes been expressed to the effect that natural justice is as vague as to be practically meaningless. But I would regard these as tainted by the perennial fallacy that because something cannot be cut and dried or nicely weighed or measured therefore it does not exist”. The term natural justice signifies fundamental rules of judicial procedure and fair play in action. According to Lord Widgery “the principles of natural justice were those fundamental rules; the breach will prevent justice from being seen to be done”. Earliest expression of ‘natural justice’ could be found in the philosophical expression of Roman Jurist (jus natural) and signified rules and principles for the conduct of man which were independent of enacted law or customs and could be discovered by the rational intelligence of man and would grow out of and conform to his nature.

The rule against bias that surfaced in 1610 in Dr Bonham's Casewhere Chief Justice Coke went so far as to say that the Court could declare an Act of Parliament void if it made a man as judge in his own cause, or otherwise ‘against common right and reason’. This was one of his grounds for disallowing the claim of the College of Physicians to fine and imprison Doctor Bonham, a Doctor of Physics of Cambridge University, for practising in the city of London without the licence of College of Physicians. The statute under which the College acted provided that fines should go half to the King half to the College so that the College had a financial interest in its own judgement and was judged in its own cause.

Question:

Mr X is an employee of a corporate office. His wife Y is a judge. In one instance, X is found to be involved in a money laundering case at his office. The office now files a suit and Y is appointed as the judge for this case. Decide.

Option: 1

Y is a judge by herself, hence can be appointed to adjudicate this case


Option: 2

Y is can be appointed as a judge only if she fulfils her responsibilities without any bias


Option: 3

Y can adjudicate the case and if the company finds the penalty to be insufficient then they can appeal against it


Option: 4

Y cannot be the judge in this case ab initio


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

Natural justice is another name for common sense justice rules of natural justice are not in codified form these principles are embedded or ingrained or inbuilt in the conscience of human beings. It supplies the omission made in codified law and helps in the administration of justice. Natural justice is not only confined to ‘fairness’ it will take many shades and colours based on the context. Thus natural justice apart from ‘fairness’ also implies reasonableness, equity and equality. They are neither cast in a rigid mould nor can they be put in a legal straitjacket. These principles written by nature in the heart of mankind, they are immutable, inviolable, and inalienable.

It is true that the concept of natural justice is not very clear and, therefore, it is not possible to define it; yet the principles of natural justice are accepted and enforced. In the case of Ridge V. Baldwin Court observed that “in modern times have sometimes been expressed to the effect that natural justice is as vague as to be practically meaningless. But I would regard these as tainted by the perennial fallacy that because something cannot be cut and dried or nicely weighed or measured therefore it does not exist”. The term natural justice signifies fundamental rules of judicial procedure and fair play in action. According to Lord Widgery “the principles of natural justice were those fundamental rules; the breach will prevent justice from being seen to be done”. Earliest expression of ‘natural justice’ could be found in the philosophical expression of Roman Jurist (jus natural) and signified rules and principles for the conduct of man which were independent of enacted law or customs and could be discovered by the rational intelligence of man and would grow out of and conform to his nature.

The rule against bias that surfaced in 1610 in Dr Bonham's Casewhere Chief Justice Coke went so far as to say that the Court could declare an Act of Parliament void if it made a man as judge in his own cause, or otherwise ‘against common right and reason’. This was one of his grounds for disallowing the claim of the College of Physicians to fine and imprison Doctor Bonham, a Doctor of Physics of Cambridge University, for practising in the city of London without the licence of College of Physicians. The statute under which the College acted provided that fines should go half to the King half to the College so that the College had a financial interest in its own judgement and was judged in its own cause.

Question:

X was a renowned cricketer in the 1980s. His son Y is a struggling cricketer who has been trying to get into the national team for many years. In the year 2020, X is appointed as a member of the selection committee. In the match which is supposed to decide the final team of the nation, Y scores a century and Z scores 65 runs. However, Z is selected to represent India and Y is not. Y now appeals against the decision, the main ground being the presence of X in the committee. Decide.

Option: 1

The appeal will stand as Y scored a century yet Z was selected after scoring 65 runs


Option: 2

The appeal will be quashed since X’s presence should have benefitted Y, but it didn’t, hence the rejection of Y is valid


Option: 3

The appeal will stand as X’s presence is a factor of bias


Option: 4

The appeal will be quashed since X was a renowned cricketer


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

Natural justice is another name for common sense justice rules of natural justice are not in codified form these principles are embedded or ingrained or inbuilt in the conscience of human beings. It supplies the omission made in codified law and helps in the administration of justice. Natural justice is not only confined to ‘fairness’ it will take many shades and colours based on the context. Thus natural justice apart from ‘fairness’ also implies reasonableness, equity and equality. They are neither cast in a rigid mould nor can they be put in a legal straitjacket. These principles written by nature in the heart of mankind, they are immutable, inviolable, and inalienable.

It is true that the concept of natural justice is not very clear and, therefore, it is not possible to define it; yet the principles of natural justice are accepted and enforced. In the case of Ridge V. Baldwin Court observed that “in modern times have sometimes been expressed to the effect that natural justice is as vague as to be practically meaningless. But I would regard these as tainted by the perennial fallacy that because something cannot be cut and dried or nicely weighed or measured therefore it does not exist”. The term natural justice signifies fundamental rules of judicial procedure and fair play in action. According to Lord Widgery “the principles of natural justice were those fundamental rules; the breach will prevent justice from being seen to be done”. Earliest expression of ‘natural justice’ could be found in the philosophical expression of Roman Jurist (jus natural) and signified rules and principles for the conduct of man which were independent of enacted law or customs and could be discovered by the rational intelligence of man and would grow out of and conform to his nature.

The rule against bias that surfaced in 1610 in Dr Bonham's Casewhere Chief Justice Coke went so far as to say that the Court could declare an Act of Parliament void if it made a man as judge in his own cause, or otherwise ‘against common right and reason’. This was one of his grounds for disallowing the claim of the College of Physicians to fine and imprison Doctor Bonham, a Doctor of Physics of Cambridge University, for practising in the city of London without the licence of College of Physicians. The statute under which the College acted provided that fines should go half to the King half to the College so that the College had a financial interest in its own judgement and was judged in its own cause.

Question:

X is a married judge who is well known for his honesty in the entire city. He has a son Y. One fine day Y gets kidnapped and the kidnapper demands a sum of 20 lakhs from X. However, the kidnapper is caught by the police. X is now appointed as the judge for the hearing of the kidnapper. Decide.

Option: 1

X can be the judge since he can decide the punishment better as he was the sufferer


Option: 2

X cannot be the judge since there is a possibility that he will be biased while delivering the judgement


Option: 3

X can be the judge since he is renowned for his honesty and fulfil his duties


Option: 4

X can be the judge but his statement can be appealed against if delivered with bias


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

Natural justice is another name for common sense justice rules of natural justice are not in codified form these principles are embedded or ingrained or inbuilt in the conscience of human beings. It supplies the omission made in codified law and helps in the administration of justice. Natural justice is not only confined to ‘fairness’ it will take many shades and colours based on the context. Thus natural justice apart from ‘fairness’ also implies reasonableness, equity and equality. They are neither cast in a rigid mould nor can they be put in a legal straitjacket. These principles written by nature in the heart of mankind, they are immutable, inviolable, and inalienable.

It is true that the concept of natural justice is not very clear and, therefore, it is not possible to define it; yet the principles of natural justice are accepted and enforced. In the case of Ridge V. Baldwin Court observed that “in modern times have sometimes been expressed to the effect that natural justice is as vague as to be practically meaningless. But I would regard these as tainted by the perennial fallacy that because something cannot be cut and dried or nicely weighed or measured therefore it does not exist”. The term natural justice signifies fundamental rules of judicial procedure and fair play in action. According to Lord Widgery “the principles of natural justice were those fundamental rules; the breach will prevent justice from being seen to be done”. Earliest expression of ‘natural justice’ could be found in the philosophical expression of Roman Jurist (jus natural) and signified rules and principles for the conduct of man which were independent of enacted law or customs and could be discovered by the rational intelligence of man and would grow out of and conform to his nature.

The rule against bias that surfaced in 1610 in Dr Bonham's Casewhere Chief Justice Coke went so far as to say that the Court could declare an Act of Parliament void if it made a man as judge in his own cause, or otherwise ‘against common right and reason’. This was one of his grounds for disallowing the claim of the College of Physicians to fine and imprison Doctor Bonham, a Doctor of Physics of Cambridge University, for practising in the city of London without the licence of College of Physicians. The statute under which the College acted provided that fines should go half to the King half to the College so that the College had a financial interest in its own judgement and was judged in its own cause.

Question:

X and Y have been married for five years. X is a judge and Y is a doctor. X is pretty much unhappy with his married life so he wants to divorce Y. Y refuses to agree to a divorce by mutual consent hence X files a suit against Y. Decide.

Option: 1

X cannot file a suit since he is a judge


Option: 2

X can file a suit against Y in legal capacity but not as a judge


Option: 3

X cannot file a divorce suit against Y since there is no valid ground for divorce


Option: 4

X can proceed with mutual consent but not contested divorce


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

In the case of M/S Halonex Limited, 59-A Noida vs State of U.P., it was held that “In reply to the aforesaid submission, learned counsel for opposite party no.2 submitted that the case of the applicants that no amount is due from their side to the complainant is a matter of defence which cannot be considered at this stage. It has been submitted that the term 'entrustment' as used in Section 405 IPC has been given a wider interpretation. It has been submitted that the goods returned by the complainant to the Company for replacement or for reimbursement would be deemed to have been entrusted to the Company and as the applicants 2 & 3 were handling its affair they become responsible. To buttress the said submission, the learned counsel for the complainant drew the attention of the Court to a decision of the Apex Court in the case of Ram Narayan Popli Vs. Central Bureau of Investigation: (2003) 3 SCC 641, wherein it was observed that: "the term "entrustment" is not necessarily a term of law. It may have different implications in different contexts. In its most general signification all it imports is the handing over possession for some purpose which may not imply the conferring of any proprietary right at all." Attention was also drawn to an observation made in the judgment of the aforesaid case, where it was observed that: "to establish the charge of criminal breach of trust, the prosecution is not obliged to prove the precise mode of conversion, misappropriation or misapplication by the accused of the property entrusted to him or over which he has dominion. The principal ingredient of the offence being dishonest misappropriation or conversion which may not ordinarily be a matter of direct proof, entrustment of property and failure in breach of an obligation to account for the property entrusted if proved, may, in the light of other circumstances, justifiably lead to an inference of dishonest misappropriation or conversion”.

Question:

X tracks down an expensive necklace on the road. Not knowing to whom it belongs. X sells it promptly to a jeweller without attempting to find the owner or submitting the necklace to the authorities. Decide the liability of X.

Option: 1

Extortion


Option: 2

Criminal breach of trust


Option: 3

Theft


Option: 4

Criminal misappropriation of Property


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A lawyer's job requires inhibiting skills. It involves practical applications of abstract legal theories and knowledge to solve specialised individual problems or to facilitate the interests of those who hire a lawyer to perform legal services. Here, in this article, we will discuss how to become a lawyer after 10th, is lawyer a good career in India, and how to become a lawyer in India.

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