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CUET Legal Studies Previous Year Question Paper PDF - 2024, 2023, 2022

CUET Legal Studies Previous Year Question Paper PDF - 2024, 2023, 2022

Edited By Marar Sumeet Sudarshan | Updated on May 23, 2024 05:00 PM IST | #CUET LLB

CUET Legal Studies Previous Year Question Paper - National Testing Agency (NTA) releases the CUET law previous year question papers on its official website - The CUET LLB previous year question paper is an important learning resource for any candidate preparing for CUET BA LLB 2024 and CUET LLB 2024. With a few months left for the exams, candidates would do well to solve mock tests and CUET LLB question papers from previous years.

It will familiarise them with the pattern, improve speed and enable them to formulate a time management strategy for the exam. Refer to this article to get the download links for CUET LLB previous year question papers for both UG and PG, and other relevant information.

The upcoming CUET UG exams are scheduled to be held from May 15-May 31, 2024. On the other hand, the CUET PG exams will be held from March 11-March 28, 2024.

CUET Legal Studies Previous Year Question Paper

NTA publishes the official CUET LLB question papers for UG and PG on its website. The link for the upcoming CUET LLB 2024 question paper will be released only after the exam. However, the download links for the CUET LLB previous year question papers can be found in this section. Given below are two tables. One of them lists down the CUET BA LLB previous year question paper with solutions. The other table provides CUET previous year question papers for LLB.

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CUET Legal Studies Previous Year Question Paper

2024CUET Legal Studies Question Paper 2024
2023CUET Legal Studies Question Paper 2023
2022CUET BA LLB Question Paper 2022
2021CUET BA LLB Question Paper 2021
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CUET LLB Previous Year Question Papers


CUET LLB Question Paper

CUET LLB Question Paper 2024


CUET LLB Question Paper 2023


CUET LLB Question Paper 2022


CUET LLB Question Paper 2021

Also, check - How to Prepare for CUET Legal Studies

Benefits of Legal Studies CUET Previous Year Question Papers

It is common knowledge that solving CUET LLB previous year question papers should be part of one’s exam preparation plans. Here are some benefits to know exactly why that is so.

  • Solving CUET law previous year question papers familiarises candidates with the exam pattern and puts them in a comfort zone. Familiarity ensures that one does not get overwhelmed upon encountering the real question paper at the time of the examination.

  • Constantly practising with CUET law sample papers significantly improves speed. This makes sure candidates can solve more questions in less time and earn a higher score.

  • When candidates solve CUET LLB previous year question papers, it helps them to gauge their level of preparation. The marks scored here is empirical evidence of where one stands. Hence one can make adjustments to one’s preparation if needed.

  • Being mentally prepared is an essential aspect of exam preparation in addition to having a good grasp on the subject matter. Solving CUET LLB previous year question papers enables one to achieve that. It reduces anxiety and builds comfort which helps the candidate stay in the right mindset for the exam.

CUET UG LLB 2024: 5 Free Mock Tests with Solutions
This eBook contains Practice Questions of English, General Test and Legal Studies along with the previous year's Legal Studies question paper and solution.
Download Now

Also Read: CUET LLB Previous Year Question Papers

CUET Legal Studies 2023 Question Paper Analysis:

For the paper Legal Studies, Set 16, the questions were progressively difficult. Questions no. 1-40 were based on similar patterns and question no. 41-50 were passage-based questions. For the first part, questions 1-10 were straightforward and were incorporated to check the general legal awareness of candidates. These questions can be solved based on general awareness and knowledge. It includes questions such as the establishment date of any organization, legal exams conducted by organizations, duties of a lawyer, acts made by Parliament, etc. Questions from 11-40 are quite difficult and are incorporated to check the legal knowledge i.e. actual knowledge of the law of the candidate. It includes questions such as sections of the act, writs and their meaning, constitutional provisions and intention, High Courts, intricacies of laws, doctrines, system of law, etc. As for the second part, i.e. questions from 41-50, these are passage-based questions. There are 2 sets of topics and 5-5 questions are based on each set. The initial set deals with Article 338 of the Constitution and the National Commission for Scheduled Casts and Scheduled Tribes. The second set is based on Article 253, i.e. international cooperation and enforcement of international treaties in India through domestic legislation.


Q1. An Internation at Organisation set up in 1919 to achieve social justice:-

A: International Labour Organization (ILO)

B: World Bank

C: International Monetary Fund (IMF)

D: World Health Organization (WHO)

Answer: A

The International Labour Organization was founded in 1919 in the belief that peace and social justice go hand in hand. It was established under the Treaty of Versailles in 1919 along with the founding of the League of Nations (LBB). In its development, in 1945 the ILO became the Special Agency of the United Nations (UN). As of 2021, ILO members number 187 countries. The ILO is the only international organization under the United Nations that consists of three elements, namely the Government element, the Employer element, and the Workers element. All ILO policies and programmes are formulated and defined by these three elements.

Q2. The International Criminal Court (ICC) does NOT deal with one of the following crimes:-

A: Crimes against Humanity

B: Crime of Aggression

C: Genocide

D: Crime against intellectual property

Answer: D

The International Criminal Court (ICC) investigates and, where warranted, tries individuals charged with the gravest crimes of concern to the international community: genocide, war crimes, crimes against humanity and the crime of aggression. The Court is participating in a global fight to end impunity, and through international criminal justice, the Court aims to hold those responsible accountable for their crimes and to help prevent these crimes from happening again.

Q3. The Advocates Act was enacted in:

A: 1958

B: 1964

C: 1961

D: 1962

Answer: C

On May 19, 1961, in the twelfth year of the Republic of India, Parliament passed The Advocates Act, 1961. The Act has a total of 60 sections split into 7 chapters. The Advocates Act, 1961 was implemented by the Central Government. This Act is applicable across India, with the exception of the State of Jammu & Kashmir. The Indian legal profession experienced a lot of changes as a result. Its goal was to establish the legality and utility of the legal profession across the whole of India.

Q4. The concept of Public Interest Litigation released the locus standi and hence brought about judicial activism through its non-adversarial approach. 'Locus Standi’ means:

A: Right of a person to receive damages

B: Right of a person to appear and be heard by a court

C: Right if a person to file an appeal before the High court

D: Right of a person to receive a pardon from a court

Answer: B

“Locus standi” is a Latin term that means “standing to sue” or “the right to bring an action in court.” In a legal context, it refers to the legal interest or right that a party must have in order to bring a case before a court. In order to have locus standi, a party must have a sufficient interest or stake in the outcome of the case. This can include a direct personal interest, such as a property owner’s right to challenge a zoning decision that affects their property, or a broader public interest, such as a citizen’s right to challenge a law that they believe is unconstitutional.

Q5. What option is available for a law graduate if he/she wants to be instrumental in public policy making?

A: Join a Non-governmental organisation

B: Become a Lecturer/Assistant professor in some college or university

C: Join a law firm

D: Apply to serve as Legislative Assistant under LAMP

Answer: D

The Legislative Assistants to Members of Parliament (LAMP) Fellowship is a unique and exciting opportunity for young Indians to learn law-making and public policy. LAMP Fellows are mentored by a Member of Parliament (MP) and work full-time with the assigned MP during a given year, starting from the Monsoon session of Parliament till the end of the Budget session. The primary role of a LAMP Fellow is to provide extensive research support to her/his MP for their parliamentary work. This includes drafting parliamentary questions for the MP, preparing the MP's speeches for zero hour debates, raising matters of public importance, drafting private members' bills etc.

Q6. National Law School University, Delhi conducts a separate entrance test called -





Answer: C

AILET is national level All India Law Entrance Test examination conducted by the National Law University Delhi every year for admission to B.A.LL. B. (Hons.), LL.

Q7. An Advocate on Record (AOR) is an advocate who has passed a qualifying examination conducted by the _____.

A: Bar Council of India

B: Supreme Court

C: High Courts

D: State Bar Council

Answer: B

An Advocate-on-Record (AOR) is a legal professional who is qualified to practice before the Supreme Court of India. AORs are responsible for filing and representing matters before the Court, and they also play a vital role in assisting the Court in its functioning. To become an AOR, one must pass an examination conducted by the Supreme Court. The examination is very competitive and covers a wide range of topics, including constitutional law, civil law, criminal law, and procedural law.

Q8. Which of the following is an advocates duty towards the client?

A: Appear in matter where he/she is a witness

B: Bound to accept briefs

C: Suppress matters or evidence

D: Withdraw from service

Answer: B

One of the duty of a lawyer is to accept cases. According to the Supreme Court, professional ethics require that a lawyer cannot refuse a brief if a client is willing to pay their fee, and the lawyer is not otherwise engaged. The fee will be based on their professional standing and the nature of the case.

Q9. Identify the Act which established an All India Bar Council in India first time -

A: The Legal Practitioners Act 1846

B: The Legal Practitioners Act 1879

C: Royal Charter 1774

D: Advocates Act 1961

Answer: D

Bar Council of India (BCI) is a statutory body established under section 4 of the Advocates Act 1961 that regulates the legal practice and legal education in India. In March 1953, the 'All India Bar Committee', headed by S. R. Das, submitted a report that proposed the creation of a bar council for each state and an all-India bar council as an apex body. It was suggested that the All India Bar Council would regulate the legal profession and set the standard of legal education. The Law Commission of India was assigned the job of assembling a report on judicial administration reforms and helping India to reform justice and equity to the whole country.

Q10. Identify the constitutional provision that reflect the Indian Ideals of respecting the International Law and Treaty Obligation.

A. Article 51 of the Indian Constitution.

B. Article 131 of the Indian Constitution.

C. Article 253 of the Indian Constitution.

D. Judicial Precedent in Kesavananda Bharti Vs. State of Kerala.

E. Provision of Convention on Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination Against Women (CEDAW)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A: A, B only

B: B, C only

C: A, C only

D: D, E only

Answer: C

In India, Articles 51 and 253 of the Indian Constitution play a pivotal role in the enforcement of international laws. The State must respect these laws and adopt such laws in order to maintain peaceful and friendly relations with foreign countries, international organizations, associations and bodies. Article 51 mandates the state to endeavor to promote international peace and security, to maintain good relations with other nations, to respect international laws and to settle international disputes by peaceful means. Article 253 of the constitution confers exclusive power on the parliament to enact laws to implement international agreement.

Q11. Arrange the given international organisations in the order of their establishment starting from the organisation that was established first:-

A. Internation Criminal Court

B. The International Committee of the Red Cross

C. World Health Organisation

D. International Court of Justice

E. United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A: E-B-C-A-D

B: D-A-C-B-E

C: B-E-D-C-A

D: A-E-D-B-C

Answer: C

i. Internation Criminal Court was established in 2002 pursuant to Rome Statute.

ii. International Committee for Red Cross was established in 1863.

iii. World Health Organisation was established in 1948.

iv. The International Court of Justice was established in 1945.

v. UNESCO was established in 1945.

Q12. Match List I with List II




Quo Warranto


to order a public authority to do its duty




to remove a case from a subordinate court and get the proceedings before Supreme Court




to issue directive to a person to vacate an office wrongfully occupied




to prevent a subordinate court from continuing on a case

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:





Answer: C

  1. Mandamus- Literal meaning of Mandamus is 'we command.' This type of writ is used when a public official or public body or corporation or lower court or tribunal or even the government has not done the needed duty or refused to do. After this writ is issued, the duty needs to be resumed.

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Prohibition- Literal meaning of Prohibition is 'to forbid.' This type of writ is used when a court which is in lower position i.e., the lower court exceeds its jurisdiction or un pursue a jurisdiction which is not possessed by it.

Certiorari- Literal meaning of Certiorari is 'to be certified' or 'to be informed.' This type of writ is used when a transfer of a case which is pending in the lower courts or the order given by lower courts in a case needs to be quashed. This writ is issued on the basis of an excess of jurisdiction or lack of jurisdiction or error of law. After this writ is issued, mistakes in the judiciary are cured.

Quo warranto- Literal meaning of Quo-Warranto is 'by what authority or warrant.' This type of writ is used when an illegal usurpation of a public office by a person is done. After this writ is issued, the legality of a claim of a person to office is enquired.

Q13. As per the Bar Council of India, which of the following information CANNOT be published by Advocates on their website?

A: His professional and academic qualifications

B: Areas of practice

C: Details of enrollment with Bar

D: His fees and remunerations charged

Answer: D

The Bar Council of India plays an instrumental role in defining the professional boundaries for lawyers in India. A significant regulation that underscores the reason why lawyers cannot advertise in India emerged in 1975. This regulation, known as the "Standard of Professional Conduct and Etiquettes" or Rule 36, clearly communicates that lawyers cannot advertise their services. Therefore, an advocate cannot publish his fees and renumeration charged.

Q14. As a part of process of impeachment, an inquiry is made into the grounds of removal of the Judges. The ground for removal include:

A. Impartiality

B. Incapacity

C. Independence

D. Proven Misbehaviour

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A: B, D only

B: A, C only

C: A, B only

D: A, D only

Answer: A

(A) Article 124(3) od the Constitution lays down the criteria to be appointed as a jusge of Supreme Court of India. Art 124(4) provides a set of regulations for the removal of the Supreme Court judge. Once appointed, the judges can hold office until the complete 65 years. They cannot be removed during their tenure except on proved misbehaviour or incapacity.

Q15. Arrange the steps in the collegium model for appointment of Supreme Court Judges in proper sequence.

A. Chief Justice of India sends his recommendations to the Union Minister for Law and Justice.

B. Chief Justice of India forms a collegium with four senior most judges of Supreme Court.

C. Chief Justice of India consults the collegium to finalize recommendations.

D. Union Minister for Law and Justice sends his recommendations to the Prime Minister.

E. The President does the appointments on recommendation of the Prime Minister.remunerationsorrect answer from the options given below:

A: C-B-D-A-E

B: B-C-A-D-E

C: D-B-A-C-E

D: C-A-B-D-E

Answer: B

The collegium, consisting of the Chief Justice of India and the four senior-most judges of the Supreme Court, decides on appointments, elevations, and transfers of Judges. The term "collegium" is not mentioned in the Indian Constitution but has been established through judicial pronouncements.

Q16. Identify the bodies they were replaced by the Supreme Court of India in 1950.

A. Mayors Court

B. Judicial Committee of Privy Council

C. Federal Court of India

D. Specialized tribunals

E. High Court of Calcutta

Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

A: A and B only

B: B and C only

C: C and D only

D: D and E only

Answer: B

After independence, the Federal Court and the Judicial Committee of the Privy Council were replaced by the Supreme Court of India, which came into being in January 1950.

Q17. Which of the following High Courts enrolled Ms. Cornelia Sorabji as the first Indian lady vakil on 24th August 1921?

A: Calcutta High Court

B: Allahabad High Court

C: Patna High Court

D: Delhi High Court

Answer: A

(A) Cornelia Sorabji (15 November 1866 – 6 July 1954) was an Indian lawyer, social reformer and writer. She was the first female graduate from Bombay University, and the first woman to study law at Oxford University. In 1924, the legal profession was opened to women in India, and Sorabji began practising in Calcutta. However, due to male bias and discrimination, she was confined to preparing opinions on cases, rather than pleading them before the court.

Q18. Match List I with List II

LIST I - Articles of the Constitution of India LIST II - Jurisdiction of SC

A. Article 32 I. Advisory Jurisdiction

B. Article 131 II. Writ Jurisdiction

C. Article 136 III. Original Jurisdiction

D. Article 143 IV. Appellate Jurisdiction

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:





Answer: B

(B) Article 32- Writ jurisdiction

Article 131- Original Jurisdiction

Article 136- Appellate Jurisdiction

Article 143- Advisory jurisdiction

Q19. After the magistrate forwards a case for trial, in which situation does the Sessions court has the jurisdiction to initiate the proceedings?

A. Imprisonment for seven years or more.

B. Offence punishable with a term of 5 years.

C. Offences punishable with death.

D. Offence punishable with life imprisonment.

E. Offence punishable with imprisonment of less than 2 years.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A: A, D, E only

B: D, B, E only

C: A, C, D only

D: C, E, B only

Answer: C

(C) If the magistrate has forwarded a case for trial, the session court has the jurisdiction to initiate proceedings in the following situation-

  • Imprisonment of seven years or more granted

  • Offences punishable by death

  • Offences punishable with life imprisonment

Q20. Which of the following provisions of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1898, provided that 'if a man was charged with an offence punishable with death, the court could provide him with a counsel upon his request.'

A: Section 341(1)

B: Section 91

C: Section 259(2)

D: Section 340(1)

Answer: B

(B). Section 91 mentions the required thing.

CUET LLB Exam Pattern 2024

As outlined above, one of the biggest advantages of solving CUET LLB previous year question papers is that it breeds familiarity with the exam pattern. So, let’s look at the CUET BA LLB exam pattern as well as the CUET LLB exam pattern one by one. Both are given in the table below

CUET UG Law Exam Pattern 2024



Mode of exam


Level of exam

National level


13 languages (English, Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu)


3 hours 15 minutes (may vary as per the subjects selected)

Number of Sections

3 (Language [1A and 1B], Legal Studies, General Test)

Total Number of questions

155-160 questions

Marking scheme

5 marks per question

Negative marking

1 mark for every wrong answer

Courses Offered


CUET PG Law Exam Pattern 2024


Types of questions


Exam mode

Computer based mode

Course Offered


Total number of questions



Two hours

Maximum marks


Number of Sections

4 (Language Comprehension, General Knowledge/Awareness, Computer Basics, General Aptitude and Logical Reasoning)

Marking scheme

4 marks per question

1 negative mark for every wrong answer

Also, check - CUET Legal Studies Syllabus 2024

Frequently Asked Question (FAQs)

1. What is the pattern of the CUET LLB question paper?

The exam pattern of CUET UG law includes three sections on language, legal studies and a general test. While the CUET PG law consists of four sections on Language Comprehension, General Knowledge/Awareness, Computer Basics, General Aptitude and Logical Reasoning.

2. Is CUET question paper available?

Yes. NTA releases the CUET law previous year question paper on its official website -

3. What type of questions are asked in the CUET exam?

In the CUET Law questions are asked in MCQ format and the syllabus covers different areas such as language comprehension, general test, logical reasoning, computers (LLB) and legal studies (BA LLB)


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Questions related to CUET LLB

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CUET LLB Entrance Exam 2024 - Syllabus

  1. General Knowledge.
  2. Current Affairs.
  3. General Mental Ability.
  4. Numerical Ability.
  5. Quantitative Reasoning.
  6. Logical & Analytical Reasoning.

For detailed information please visit :

The KLEE exam syllabus includes the following topics:

  • General English: 60 questions, 180 maximum marks
  • General Knowledge: 45 questions, 135 maximum marks
  • Arithmetic and Mental Ability: 25 questions
  • Aptitude for Legal Studies: 70 questions

Some important topics for the KLEE exam include:

Reading comprehension, Word usage, Vocabulary, Grammar, Para jumbles, Synonyms and antonyms, Inference questions, Phrases.

The KLEE exam covers the following topics for the LLM entrance exam:

  • Jurisprudence
  • Public International Law
  • Constitutional Law
  • Administrative Law
  • Law of Crimes
  • Law of Property

For detailed information please visit :

Hope this helps you.

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