CUET BA LLB Previous Year Question Paper PDF - Download Here

CUET BA LLB Previous Year Question Paper: The CUET 2025 exams will be held from May 8 to June 1, 2025, and BA LLB candidates are now at a critical juncture of preparation. It is the best approach at this juncture to solve CUET BA LLB previous year question papers in order to reinforce preparation. The CUET exam is conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA). Here, you will find the past year papers of BA LLB. These papers give a wonderful idea about the exam pattern, type of questions, and the level of difficulty, which benefits the candidates by enhancing their speed, accuracy, and confidence overall for the CUET 2025 BA LLB exam.

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1. CUET BA LLB Previous Year Question Paper
2. Benefits of CUET BA LLB Previous Year Question Papers Analysis
3. CUET UG PREVIOUS YEAR MCQs

CUET BA LLB Previous Year Question Paper

Practice CUET BA LLB previous year question papers is necessary in order to get familiar with the structure of the exam and the level of difficulty. These question papers familiarize the candidates with key topics, enhance the time management, and effective exam techniques.

Also check - How to Prepare for CUET BA LLB

Benefits of CUET BA LLB Previous Year Question Papers Analysis

It is common knowledge that solving CUET UG BA LLB previous year question papers should be part of one’s exam preparation plans. Here are some benefits to know exactly why that is so.

• Solving CUET law previous year question papers familiarises candidates with the exam pattern and puts them in a comfort zone. Familiarity ensures that one does not get overwhelmed upon encountering the real question paper at the time of the examination.

• Constantly practising with CUET law Legal Studies question papers significantly improves speed. This makes sure candidates can solve more questions in less time and earn a higher score.

• When candidates solve CUET BA LLB previous year question papers, it helps them to gauge their level of preparation. The marks scored here is empirical evidence of where one stands. Hence one can make adjustments to one’s preparation if needed.

• Being mentally prepared is an essential aspect of exam preparation in addition to having a good grasp on the subject matter. Solving CUET BA LLB previous year question papers enables one to achieve that. It reduces anxiety and builds comfort which helps the candidate stay in the right mindset for the exam.

Also Read: CUET LLB Previous Year Question Papers

CUET BA LLB 2024 Question Paper Analysis

Solving the CUET BA LLB 2024 question paper can be very helpful for the aspirants preparing for CUET 2025. Examining the previous year's paper helps the candidates understand key topics, levels of difficulty, and types of questions, enabling them to streamline their preparation strategy and appear for the exam with more confidence.

Overall Structure of the Paper:

• The Legal Studies paper showed a gradual increase in the level of difficulty.

• The paper was divided into two parts:

  • Questions 1–40: Direct, standalone questions.

  • Questions 41–50: Passage-based questions.

Analysis of Questions 1–10 (General Legal Awareness):

The first 10 questions were direct and were meant to verify the candidate's general legal awareness. These questions were able to be answered on general knowledge without requiring deep legal study.

Topics Discussed in Questions 1–10:

These questions covered such facts as when legal organizations came into being, legal exams run by different institutions, responsibilities and moral obligations of a lawyer, and general facts about significant Acts passed by Parliament.

Analysis of Questions 11–40 (Detailed Legal Knowledge):

Questions 11–40 were much more demanding and tested the candidate's true knowledge of law and constitutional principles. They demanded proper comprehension of legal frameworks, provisions, and complex law concepts.

Topics Covered in Questions 11–40:

They were examined on passages of different Acts, the meanings and types of constitutional writs, constitutional provisions and their desired aim, facts regarding the power of the High Courts, as well as fundamental legal doctrines and systems of the law.

Passage-Based Question Analysis (Questions 41–50):

The final 10 questions were based on passages, two separate passages. Each passage consisted of five questions to check the candidate's skills in understanding legal content and its logical application to the provided context.

First Passage (Article 338 - SC/ST Commission):

The first passage was about Article 338 of the Constitution, and it emphasized the powers, organization, and duties of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. Questions required a clear grasp of the role of the Commission under the Constitution.

Second Passage (Article 253 - International Treaties):

The second passage was drawn from Article 253, which involved international cooperation. It addressed how India complies with international obligations by enacting legislation locally and the constitutional grounds of such law-making authority.

CUET UG PREVIOUS YEAR MCQs

Practice of CUET UG last year MCQs is a productive means for aspirants to build up their preparation. The questions enable candidates to comprehend the kind of MCQs being raised, gauge the difficulty level, and enhance the speed of solving problems, eventually increasing their readiness for the examination in CUET 2025.

Q 1. An International at Organisation set up in 1919 to achieve social justice:-

A: International Labour Organization (ILO)

B: World Bank

C: International Monetary Fund (IMF)

D: World Health Organization (WHO)

Answer: A

The International Labour Organization was founded in 1919 in the belief that peace and social justice go hand in hand. It was established under the Treaty of Versailles in 1919 along with the founding of the League of Nations (LBB). In its development, in 1945 the ILO became the Special Agency of the United Nations (UN). As of 2021, ILO members number 187 countries. The ILO is the only international organization under the United Nations that consists of three elements, namely the Government element, the Employer element, and the Workers element. All ILO policies and programmes are formulated and defined by these three elements.

Q2. The International Criminal Court (ICC) does NOT deal with one of the following crimes:-

A: Crimes against Humanity

B: Crime of Aggression

C: Genocide

D: Crime against intellectual property

Answer: D

The International Criminal Court (ICC) investigates and, where warranted, tries individuals charged with the gravest crimes of concern to the international community: genocide, war crimes, crimes against humanity and the crime of aggression. The Court is participating in a global fight to end impunity, and through international criminal justice, the Court aims to hold those responsible accountable for their crimes and to help prevent these crimes from happening again.

Q 3. The Advocates Act was enacted in:

A: 1958

B: 1964

C: 1961

D: 1962

Answer: C

On May 19, 1961, in the twelfth year of the Republic of India, Parliament passed The Advocates Act, 1961. The Act has a total of 60 sections split into 7 chapters. The Advocates Act, 1961 was implemented by the Central Government. This Act is applicable across India, with the exception of the State of Jammu & Kashmir. The Indian legal profession experienced a lot of changes as a result. Its goal was to establish the legality and utility of the legal profession across the whole of India.

Q 4. The concept of Public Interest Litigation released the locus standi and hence brought about judicial activism through its non-adversarial approach. 'Locus Standi’ means:

A: Right of a person to receive damages

B: Right of a person to appear and be heard by a court

C: Right if a person to file an appeal before the High court

D: Right of a person to receive a pardon from a court

Answer: B

“Locus standi” is a Latin term that means “standing to sue” or “the right to bring an action in court.” In a legal context, it refers to the legal interest or right that a party must have in order to bring a case before a court. In order to have locus standi, a party must have a sufficient interest or stake in the outcome of the case. This can include a direct personal interest, such as a property owner’s right to challenge a zoning decision that affects their property, or a broader public interest, such as a citizen’s right to challenge a law that they believe is unconstitutional.

Q 5. What option is available for a law graduate if he/she wants to be instrumental in public policy making?

A: Join a Non-governmental organisation

B: Become a Lecturer/Assistant professor in some college or university

C: Join a law firm

D: Apply to serve as Legislative Assistant under LAMP

Answer: D

The Legislative Assistants to Members of Parliament (LAMP) Fellowship is a unique and exciting opportunity for young Indians to learn law-making and public policy. LAMP Fellows are mentored by a Member of Parliament (MP) and work full-time with the assigned MP during a given year, starting from the Monsoon session of Parliament till the end of the Budget session. The primary role of a LAMP Fellow is to provide extensive research support to her/his MP for their parliamentary work. This includes drafting parliamentary questions for the MP, preparing the MP's speeches for zero hour debates, raising matters of public importance, drafting private members' bills etc.

Q 6. National Law School University, Delhi conducts a separate entrance test called -

A: LSAT

B: LSAC

C: AILET

D: LST

Answer: C

AILET is a national level All India Law Entrance Test examination conducted by the National Law University Delhi every year for admission to B.A.LL. B. (Hons.), LL.

Q 7. An Advocate on Record (AOR) is an advocate who has passed a qualifying examination conducted by the _____.

A: Bar Council of India

B: Supreme Court

C: High Courts

D: State Bar Council

Answer: B

An Advocate-on-Record (AOR) is a legal professional who is qualified to practice before the Supreme Court of India. AORs are responsible for filing and representing matters before the Court, and they also play a vital role in assisting the Court in its functioning. To become an AOR, one must pass an examination conducted by the Supreme Court. The examination is very competitive and covers a wide range of topics, including constitutional law, civil law, criminal law, and procedural law.

Q 8. Which of the following is an advocates duty towards the client?

A: Appear in matter where he/she is a witness

B: Bound to accept briefs

C: Suppress matters or evidence

D: Withdraw from service

Answer: B

One of the duty of a lawyer is to accept cases. According to the Supreme Court, professional ethics require that a lawyer cannot refuse a brief if a client is willing to pay their fee, and the lawyer is not otherwise engaged. The fee will be based on their professional standing and the nature of the case.

Q 9. Identify the Act which established an All India Bar Council in India first time -

A: The Legal Practitioners Act 1846

B: The Legal Practitioners Act 1879

C: Royal Charter 1774

D: Advocates Act 1961

Answer: D

Bar Council of India (BCI) is a statutory body established under section 4 of the Advocates Act 1961 that regulates the legal practice and legal education in India. In March 1953, the 'All India Bar Committee', headed by S. R. Das, submitted a report that proposed the creation of a bar council for each state and an all-India bar council as an apex body. It was suggested that the All India Bar Council would regulate the legal profession and set the standard of legal education. The Law Commission of India was assigned the job of assembling a report on judicial administration reforms and helping India to reform justice and equity to the whole country.

Q 10. Identify the constitutional provision that reflect the Indian Ideals of respecting the International Law and Treaty Obligation.

A. Article 51 of the Indian Constitution.

B. Article 131 of the Indian Constitution.

C. Article 253 of the Indian Constitution.

D. Judicial Precedent in Kesavananda Bharti Vs. State of Kerala.

E. Provision of Convention on Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination Against Women (CEDAW)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A: A, B only

B: B, C only

C: A, C only

D: D, E only

Answer: C

In India, Articles 51 and 253 of the Indian Constitution play a pivotal role in the enforcement of international laws. The State must respect these laws and adopt such laws in order to maintain peaceful and friendly relations with foreign countries, international organizations, associations and bodies. Article 51 mandates the state to endeavor to promote international peace and security, to maintain good relations with other nations, to respect international laws and to settle international disputes by peaceful means. Article 253 of the constitution confers exclusive power on the parliament to enact laws to implement international agreement.

Q 11. Arrange the given international organisations in the order of their establishment starting from the organisation that was established first:-

A. International Criminal Court

B. The International Committee of the Red Cross

C. World Health Organisation

D. International Court of Justice

E. United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A: E-B-C-A-D

B: D-A-C-B-E

C: B-E-D-C-A

D: A-E-D-B-C

Answer: C

i. International Criminal Court was established in 2002 pursuant to Rome Statute.

ii. The International Committee for the Red Cross was established in 1863.

iii. The World Health Organisation was established in 1948.

iv. The International Court of Justice was established in 1945.

v. UNESCO was established in 1945.

Q 12. Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A: A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

B: A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

C: A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

D: A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

Answer: C

Mandamus- Literal meaning of Mandamus is 'we command.' This type of writ is used when a public official or public body or corporation or lower court or tribunal or even the government has not done the needed duty or refused to do. After this writ is issued, the duty needs to be resumed.

Prohibition- Literal meaning of Prohibition is 'to forbid.' This type of writ is used when a court which is in lower position i.e., the lower court exceeds its jurisdiction or un pursue a jurisdiction which is not possessed by it.

Certiorari- Literal meaning of Certiorari is 'to be certified' or 'to be informed.' This type of writ is used when a transfer of a case which is pending in the lower courts or the order given by lower courts in a case needs to be quashed. This writ is issued on the basis of an excess of jurisdiction or lack of jurisdiction or error of law. After this writ is issued, mistakes in the judiciary are cured.

Quo warranto- Literal meaning of Quo-Warranto is 'by what authority or warrant.' This type of writ is used when an illegal usurpation of a public office by a person is done. After this writ is issued, the legality of a claim of a person to office is enquired.

Q 13. As per the Bar Council of India, which of the following information CANNOT be published by Advocates on their website?

A: His professional and academic qualifications

B: Areas of practice

C: Details of enrollment with Bar

D: His fees and remunerations charged

Answer: D

The Bar Council of India plays an instrumental role in defining the professional boundaries for lawyers in India. A significant regulation that underscores the reason why lawyers cannot advertise in India emerged in 1975. This regulation, known as the "Standard of Professional Conduct and Etiquettes" or Rule 36, clearly communicates that lawyers cannot advertise their services. Therefore, an advocate cannot publish his fees and remuneration charged.

Q 14. As a part of the process of impeachment, an inquiry is made into the grounds of removal of the Judges. The ground for removal include:

A. Impartiality

B. Incapacity

C. Independence

D. Proven Misbehaviour

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A: B, D only

B: A, C only

C: A, B only

D: A, D only

Answer: A

(A) Article 124(3) of the Constitution lays down the criteria to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court of India. Art 124(4) provides a set of regulations for the removal of the Supreme Court judge. Once appointed, the judges can hold office until the complete 65 years. They cannot be removed during their tenure except on proved misbehaviour or incapacity.

Q 15. Arrange the steps in the collegium model for appointment of Supreme Court Judges in proper sequence.

A. Chief Justice of India sends his recommendations to the Union Minister for Law and Justice.

B. Chief Justice of India forms a collegium with four senior most judges of Supreme Court.

C. Chief Justice of India consults the collegium to finalize recommendations.

D. Union Minister for Law and Justice sends his recommendations to the Prime Minister.

E. The President does the appointments on recommendation of the Prime Minister.remunerationsorrect answer from the options given below:

A: C-B-D-A-E

B: B-C-A-D-E

C: D-B-A-C-E

D: C-A-B-D-E

Answer: B

The collegium, consisting of the Chief Justice of India and the four senior-most judges of the Supreme Court, decides on appointments, elevations, and transfers of Judges. The term "collegium" is not mentioned in the Indian Constitution but has been established through judicial pronouncements.

Q 16. Identify the bodies that were replaced by the Supreme Court of India in 1950.

A. Mayors Court

B. Judicial Committee of Privy Council

C. Federal Court of India

D. Specialized tribunals

E. High Court of Calcutta

Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

A: A and B only

B: B and C only

C: C and D only

D: D and E only

Answer: B

After independence, the Federal Court and the Judicial Committee of the Privy Council were replaced by the Supreme Court of India, which came into being in January 1950.

Q 17. Which of the following High Courts enrolled Ms. Cornelia Sorabji as the first Indian lady vakil on 24th August 1921?

A: Calcutta High Court

B: Allahabad High Court

C: Patna High Court

D: Delhi High Court

Answer: A

(A) Cornelia Sorabji (15 November 1866 – 6 July 1954) was an Indian lawyer, social reformer and writer. She was the first female graduate from Bombay University, and the first woman to study law at Oxford University. In 1924, the legal profession was opened to women in India, and Sorabji began practising in Calcutta. However, due to male bias and discrimination, she was confined to preparing opinions on cases, rather than pleading them before the court.

Q 18. Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A: A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-IV

B: A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

C: A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

D: A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Answer: B

(B) Article 32- Writ jurisdiction

Article 131- Original Jurisdiction

Article 136- Appellate Jurisdiction

Article 143- Advisory jurisdiction

Q 19. After the magistrate forwards a case for trial, in which situation does the Sessions court have the jurisdiction to initiate the proceedings?

A. Imprisonment for seven years or more.

B. Offence punishable with a term of 5 years.

C. Offences punishable with death.

D. Offence punishable with life imprisonment.

E. Offence punishable with imprisonment of less than 2 years.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A: A, D, E only

B: D, B, E only

C: A, C, D only

D: C, E, B only

Answer: C

(C) If the magistrate has forwarded a case for trial, the session court has the jurisdiction to initiate proceedings in the following situation-

• Imprisonment of seven years or more granted

• Offences punishable by death

• Offences punishable with life imprisonment

Q 20. Which of the following provisions of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1898, provided that 'if a man was charged with an offence punishable with death, the court could provide him with a counsel upon his request.'

A: Section 341(1)

B: Section 91

C: Section 259(2)

D: Section 340(1)

Answer: B

(B). Section 91 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1898 deals with the provision under which an accused person charged with an offense which is punishable with death may apply for legal aid, and the court can appoint counsel. This is one way of providing the accused proper legal representation in serious offenses.

CUET LLB Exam Pattern 2025

Being familiar with the CUET LLB Exam Pattern 2025 is essential to planning your strategy effectively. Knowing the pattern, types of questions, and marking scheme will assist candidates in managing their time well, prioritizing the important areas, and aligning their study schedule to the exam requirements.

CUET UG Law Exam Pattern 2025

Also check - CUET BA LLB Syllabus 2025