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Free CLAT Practice Test - Day 2

Free CLAT Practice Test - Day 2

Edited By Ritika Jonwal | Updated on Sep 06, 2024 04:59 PM IST | #CLAT

On its whole, the Common Law Admission Test is known as CLAT. The Centralised National Entrance Exam, or CLAT, is administered by the government for admission to 22 national law universities in India. It can be challenging to prepare for the Common Law Admission Test (CLAT), requiring diligent work and thoughtful research. Practising answering multiple-choice questions daily is a great way to increase your readiness. You will get an understanding of important ideas and familiarity with the format and types of questions on the test by practising with these daily questions. Including daily multiple-choice questions (MCQs) in your study plan enables you to monitor your development, pinpoint areas that require work, and boost your exam confidence. We'll examine how daily multiple-choice questions (MCQs) might help you get ready for the CLAT and improve your overall performance.

Download Free PDF: Day 2 - Solutions

CLAT 2025 Passage Of The Day - English Language Section

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

New technologies have always sparked privacy concerns, but according to Danielle Keats Citron's book, "The Fight for Privacy: Protecting Dignity, Identity, and Love in the Digital Age," this battle has become more urgent than ever. Citron's focus is on the fundamental aspects of intimate privacy, specifically, our bodies and love lives, which are crucial for human selfhood and agency. Unfortunately, these aspects of privacy are currently facing unprecedented threats.

Privacy violation lies at the heart of the prevailing model of informational capitalism. Since around 2005, our lives have been transformed into data, making us a goldmine for advertisers, marketers, and data brokers. Often, we unknowingly give away personal information with each click, casually dismissing privacy policies without realizing the extensive dossiers being compiled about us.

Discovering the truth about our "data selves" can be shocking. For instance, Tinder holds a treasure trove of information about its users, including their hopes, anxieties, sexual preferences, and deepest secrets. Even pornographic websites employ third-party tracking mechanisms. However, it's not just the websites themselves that gather this data; the shadowy world of the data-broker industry collects and trades our information. This data can be purchased by anyone willing to pay, whether it be a vengeful ex-partner, a stalker, or a political party. We are often oblivious to the extent of our entrapment in this era of surveillance. Nowadays, algorithmic tools have the power to influence our insurance premiums and job applications. The profound implications of this surveillance model only become apparent when our intimate privacy is violated, a reality that has disproportionately affected women and minority groups. In conclusion, the rapid advancement of technology has exposed our intimate privacy to unprecedented risks. The commodification and trade of personal information have given rise to an era where our lives are reduced to data points. Safeguarding our privacy has become a pressing issue that requires immediate attention to protect our dignity, identity, and love in the digital age.

Q1. What does the author imply in the first sentence of the passage?

(a) New technologies are bad for privacy.

(b) New technologies are designed to breach privacy.

(c) Privacy is not a consideration in the adoption of new technologies.

(d) Privacy intrusion is the motto of new technologies.

Q2. The term ‘informational capitalism’ is used as an –

(a) Metaphor

(b) Simile

(c) Adjective

(d) Hyperbole

Q3. Under which category, this passage can be put?

(a) Poetic

(b) Educational

(c) Expository

(d) Factual

Q4. Which of the following can be inferred about ‘digital voyeurism’ based on reading the passage?

(a) It refers to digital divide.

(b) It is equivalent to digital intrusion.

(c) It indicates digital advancement.

(d) It discusses the digital enthusiasm

Q5. Which of the following is out of context and out of the scope of the passage?

(a) Constant surveillance

(b) Immoral conduct

(c) Vengeful acts

(d) Policy paralyses

Section - Current Affairs, including General Knowledge

Read the following passage and answer the questions

India’s gross domestic product (GDP) reached the dollar 3.75 trillion mark in 2023, from around dollar 2 trillion in 2014, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman’s office said in a tweet. India has moved from tenth to the fifth-largest economy in the world, the tweet added. Highlighting the nine years of reforms under the Narendra Modi-led government, Sitharaman’s office also said: “India is now being called a bright spot in the global economy.” Four countries ahead of India in terms of GDP at current prices include China, the United States, Germany, and Japan. India has surpassed the United Kingdom, France, Canada, Russia, and Australia in GDP numbers. The provisional estimates released by the (1) recently showed the overall economic growth in FY23 at 7.2 per cent, powered by a higher than expected growth in the fourth quarter. Speaking at an Assocham event in Kochi, Chief Economic Advisor V Anantha Nageswaran said the final number could be higher than 7.2 per cent because the underlying momentum in the economy was quite strong. While stressing that India being a low-middle-income country cannot sit on its laurels, the CEA said: “We need to catch up with the pre-pandemic trend. Even before the pandemic, the economy was slowing down in 2018-19 and 2019-20. It is important to arrest that kind of slowdown,” he said.

Nageswaran said if the country could sustain 6.5 to 6.8 per cent growth for the rest of the decade, it would be a creditable achievement on the part of the Indian economy given the global conditions while cautioning that the export growth could be a problem given the external situation. He said India’s overall macroeconomic management had been prudent and sensible without over-stretching during the pandemic, as several advanced countries did.

Q6. The provisional estimates released by an institution recently showed the overall economic growth in FY23 at 7.2 per cent, powered by higher-than-expected growth in the fourth quarter. Name the institution referred to here.

(a) National Statistical Office

(b) Planning Commission

(c) Asian Development Bank

(d) NABARD

Q7. Which Ministry prepares the Economic Survey of the country?

(a) Defence Ministry

(b) Ministry of Agriculture

(c) Finance Ministry

(d) Ministry of Civil Aviation

Q8. What refers to the standard measure of the value added created through the production of goods and services in a country during a certain period?

(a) National Income

(b) Gross Domestic Product

(c) Gross National Product

(d) Depreciation

Q9. Name the term that denotes the measure of average income earned per person in a given area during a specific period, generally a year.

(a) Per capita income

(b) National Income

(c) Marginal income

(d) Depreciation

Q10. Who first prepared the National Income estimate in India for the year 1867-68?

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru

(b) Dadabhai Naoroji

(c) B. N. Sharma

(d) S. Gadgil

Section - Legal Reasoning

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.

Abetment is a procedure in which there is a mental progression of instigating an individual or intentionally aiding a person in doing a particular act. The purpose of the legislature and the proportion of the cases decided by the Supreme Court is obvious that to charge a person under section 306 Indian Penal Code, 1860 there has to be a lucid mens rea to commit the offence. It also requires a dynamic act or direct act, which led the deceased to commit suicide seeing no alternative and that act must have been intended to put the deceased to such a point that he had to commit suicide.

In the case of suicide, an offence of abetment punishable under Section 306 is inherent. Therefore, even in the case of suicide, there is an obligation on the person, who knows or has reason to believe that such a suicidal death has occurred, to give information. In Kali- das Achamma v. The State of A.P., S.H.O. Karimnagar. I Town P.S., [1987] 2 ALT 937 it was observed as under: "In the case of every suicide, abetment is inherent. Whether ultimately it is proven or not, it is a different aspect. Abetment of suicide is an offence punishable under Section 306 I.P.C. and therefore whenever a case of suicide occurs, the body cannot be disposed of without informing the Police and further as provided under Section 174 Cr.P.C. The Police have to hold an inquest Since it is an unnatural death.' In the instant case A 1, who reached his house on 18.3.82 knowing fully well that the deceased had already died, informed P.W. 8 that the deceased was in a serious condition. Likewise, he informed P.W. 12 on the telephone without disclosing that the deceased was already dead. However, when P.W. 6, the brother of the deceased, came to the house where the dead body was lying, A 1 told him that the body would be cremated. The same effect is the evidence in P.W. 13. P.W. 6, the brother of the deceased, on his own, went and reported to the police. It can thus be seen that A 1 intentionally omitted to give the information in respect of the death of the deceased which he was legally bound to give.

Q11. Y, a newly married woman, did not eat anything for three or four days before committing suicide her husband X and in-laws did not persuade her to eat. What is the liability of the husband and his family under Section 306 of IPC?

(a) X is liable for an attempt to suicide

(b) X has no liability

(c) X is liable for abetment to suicide

(d) X is liable for criminal conspiracy

Q12. X repeatedly says unacceptable things to Y which deteriorates the mental health of Y. Due to these, Y tries to commit suicide but decides not to do so at the last moment. Determine the correct answer.

(a) X is liable for abetment for suicide

(b) X is liable for attempt cause grievous hurt

(c) There is no liability on X

(d) None of the above

Q13. X is married to Y. From the day after marriage, X’s family taunts Y for not providing a dowry. One fine day, X comes home drunk and says unacceptable things to Y so much so that it leads her to commit suicide. Determine the liability.

(a) X is liable for abetment to suicide, and so is his family.

(b) X is liable for abetment to suicide, and his family for nothing.

(c) X's family is liable for defamation.

(d) X's family is liable for abetment, not X since he was intoxicated.

Q14. X is a police officer who is entrusted by the court to arrest Y. B informs X that C is Y, despite knowing that he isn’t. C files a case for wrongful arrest. Determine the liability of B.

(a) B is not guilty since there was no wrongful intent

(b) B is liable for mentally harassing X

(c) B is liable for abetment for the wrongful arrest

(d) Both b and c are true

Q15. X is an offender on the run. He rents a room in a motel, the manager of which is unaware of the offender that X is. In the motel, he is provided with food and all the essential services. X is, however, caught when the police are informed by a janitor of the motel, who was aware of X and his offence due to a Whatsapp forward. Determine the liability of the manager.

(a) The manager is liable for abetment by conspiracy.

(b) The manager is not liable since he was not aware of X's offence.

(c) The manager is liable since ignorance of the law is not a defence.

(d) Both a and b are true.

Section - Logical Reasoning

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

The decision made by Chief Minister Nitish Kumar-led Cabinet to modify the recruitment norms for teachers in Bihar, allowing candidates from other states to apply, has sparked a debate within the state. State Education Minister Chandra Shekhar defended the decision, stating that it was necessary to ensure that Bihar's schools have qualified teachers, as they face challenges in finding competent candidates in subjects like English, Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics.

While some political leaders and teachers' associations have criticized the government's move, experts have expressed their support. According to data shared by the Ministry of Education in March, Bihar has the lowest literacy rate in the country, standing at 61.8%.

Vidyarthi Vikas, an assistant professor at A.N. Sinha Institute of Social Studies, welcomed the decision, stating that teachers would now be selected based on merit, unlike the previous system where anyone who cleared their B.Ed. course could become a teacher. He believed that Bihar's education system would improve with skilled teachers but also emphasized that the competency of Bihari teachers should not be underestimated.

Bakshi Amit Kumar Sinha, an assistant professor at the Asian Development Research Institute (ADRI), agreed with the decision, noting that quality education is crucial for the holistic development of students and their future. He commended the state government for removing the domicile clause in this regard.

On the other hand, BJP Rajya Sabha member and former Deputy Chief Minister Sushil Kumar Modi criticized Education Minister Shekhar's statement about the difficulty in finding competent school teachers, deeming it "shocking and absurd."

The decision to open up teacher recruitment to candidates from other states has ignited contrasting opinions among stakeholders in Bihar. While experts view it as a positive step toward improving the quality of education, some political figures express scepticism and question the necessity of seeking teachers from outside Bihar. The ongoing debate highlights the significance of addressing the challenges in Bihar's education system and ensuring access to competent teachers who can contribute to the overall development of students.

Q16. What is one of the reasons cited by State Education Minister Chandra Shekhar to justify the modification of teacher recruitment norms in Bihar?

(a) To ensure a diverse pool of candidates

(b) To address the shortage of qualified teachers

(c) To promote regional integration

(d) To reduce the burden on Bihari teachers

Q17. Which of the following subjects were specifically mentioned as facing challenges in finding competent candidates for teaching positions in Bihar?

(a) History and Geography

(b) English and Mathematics

(c) Science and Technology

(d) Economics and Political Science

Q18. What is the central idea/theme of the passage?

(a) The need to improve the quality of education in Bihar

(b) The debate surrounding teacher recruitment norms in Bihar

(c) The criticism faced by the Chief Minister Nitish Kumar-led Cabinet

(d) The low literacy rate in Bihar compared to other states

Q19. Which of the following can be inferred from Vidyarthi Vikas's statement?

(a) Bihari teachers are not competent enough.

(b) The previous system of teacher recruitment was merit-based.

(c) Skilled teachers are only available from outside Bihar.

(d) Bihar's education system is currently performing well.

Q20. What can be inferred about the writer's perspective on the decision to modify teacher recruitment norms?

(a) The writer supports the decision and believes it will benefit Bihar's education system.

(b) The writer criticizes the decision and considers it unnecessary.

(c) The writer is neutral and presents both sides of the debate objectively.

(d) The writer is sceptical about the impact of the decision on Bihar's education system.

Section - Quantitative Techniques

Answer the following questions using the information given below.

The chart shows the number of students who applied for visas to five different countries for their master's.

1725598729115

The following table shows the ratio between the engineering students and other studies students who applied for visas to 5 different countries.

Countries

The ratio of engineering students to other studies students

USA

3:2

Russia

5:3

China

7:8

France

1:3

UK

4:5


Q21. What is the difference between the number of engineering students who applied to the USA and the number of other studies students who applied to China?

  1. 32,500

  2. 38,000

  3. 33,900

  4. 35,000

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Q22. The students from other studies applied for Russia what per cent of the engineering students applied for the UK?

  1. 125%

  2. 100%

  3. 89%

  4. 200%

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Q23. What is the average of engineering students who applied for the USA, China and France?

  1. 42,500

  2. 48,000

  3. 42,000

  4. 45,000

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Q24. The ratio of male to female students from other studies students who applied for the UK is 1:2. Find the female students of other studies who applied for the UK.

  1. 30,000

  2. 32,000

  3. 22,000

  4. 35,000

25. If 30% of engineering students and 40% of other studies students applied for France got their visa. Find how many students got visas for France.

  1. 22,000

  2. 18,000

  3. 24,000

  4. 25,000

Conclusion

Using daily MCQs in your CLAT preparation is more than simply a study tip; it's an excellent approach to truly understand the test. Regularly practising these questions can help you think more clearly, organise your time more effectively, and develop a solid foundation of knowledge in a variety of disciplines. As you continue to study with daily MCQs, you will see that they improve your understanding of the content and boost your confidence. Continue practising consistently and following a wise study strategy; you'll be on pace to perform well on the CLAT.

The solution PDF will be available at 6:00 PM. The solution PDF link will be included in the Daily Free CLAT Practice Test article.

Happy learning!

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Questions related to CLAT

Have a question related to CLAT ?

For CLAT, a central government issued reservation form is typically required. This is because CLAT is a national-level entrance exam and follows specific guidelines for reservation categories.

While a state-issued reservation form might be accepted in some cases, it's highly recommended to obtain a central government issued form to avoid any potential issues. This form can usually be obtained from the respective state's social justice department or a designated government office.

Regarding the validity of your 2022 state reservation form: While it might be valid for three years in some contexts, it's best to check the specific requirements for CLAT. The eligibility criteria and document requirements can change from year to year. It's advisable to obtain a new central government issued reservation form for the current year to ensure that your application meets all the necessary criteria.

For more information about CLAT you can go through the link attached below.

https://law.careers360.com/exams/clat






Hello aspirant,

On July 15, 2025, the Consortium of National Law Universities (NLUs) launched the CLAT 2025 Registration. Until October 15, 2024, candidates may complete the CLAT Application Form 2025. All qualified applicants may complete the CLAT Application Form 2025 by going to consortiumofnlus.ac.in, the official website. Candidates must pay the CLAT 2025 application costs as specified in the CLAT Exam Notification. Important dates for CLAT Registration 2025 were outlined in the CLAT 2025 Notification, which was made public on July 7.

For complete information, please visit the following link:

https://law.careers360.com/exams/clat

Thank you

Hope it helps you.

VIT Chennai offers 5 years integrated programme of law LLB for the admission Merit list is prepared based on performance in 10+2 and valid CLAT/LSAT score.no seperate exam is conducted for admission.you need to apply with your CLAT score and 12th marksheet.

Clat exam is near so try to get good score if you didn't perform well in your academics.

Good luck and stay focused.

Hello aspirant,

The Common Law Admission Test (CLAT) is open to engineering students. Students who want to study law in National Law Universities (NLUs) in India for undergraduate (BA LLB) and graduate (LLM) degrees should primarily take the CLAT.

To know the complete eligibility criteria, please visit the following link:

https://law.careers360.com/articles/clat-eligibility-criteria

Thank you

Hello aspirant,

For admission to the nation's best NLUs, the Consortium of NLUs will administer the CLAT Exam. The CLAT Exam Dates have been issued by the Consortium. The date of the CLAT Exam 2025 is set for December 1, 2024, as per the CLAT Notification 2025.  The consortium has also made available the CLAT 2025 eligibility requirements for undergraduate and graduate courses in addition to the official notification. On July 15, 2024, the CLAT 2025 application process opened. On or before October 15, 2024, candidates interested in studying law at any of the nation's NLUs may do so by completing the CLAT Application Form.

Whoever fulfills the eligibility criteria can give CLAT exam.

For more information please visit the following link link:

https://law.careers360.com/articles/clat-eligibility-criteria

Thank you

Passage 1
Read the passage below and answer the following question.
Cheating is considered a criminal offence under the Indian Penal Code. It is done to gain profit or advantage from another person by using some deceitful means. The person who deceives another knows for the fact that it would place the other person in an unfair situation. Cheating as an offence can be made punishable under Section 420 of the IPC. Scope of Section 415 Cheating is defined under Section 415 of the Indian Penal Code as whoever fraudulently or dishonestly deceives a person to induce that person to deliver a property to any person or to consent to retain any property. If a person intentionally induces a person to do or omit to do any act which he would not have done if he was not deceived to do so and the act has caused harm to that person in body, mind, reputation, or property, then the person who fraudulently, dishonestly or intentionally induced the other person is said to cheat. Any dishonest concealment of facts that can deceive a person to do an act that he would not have done otherwise is also cheating within the meaning of this section. Essential Ingredients of Cheating requires · deception of any person. Fraudulently or dishonestly inducing that person to deliver any property to any person or to consent that any person shall retain any property; or · intentionally inducing a person to do or omit to do anything which he would not do or omit if he were not so deceived, and the act or omission causes or is likely to cause damage or harm to that person in body, mind, reputation or property.
Deceit– a tort arising from an untrue or false statement of facts which are made by a person, recklessly or knowingly, with an intention that it shall be acted upon by the other person, who would suffer damages as a result. 
Fraud – a false or untrue representation of the fact, that is made with the knowledge of its falsity or without the belief in its truth or a reckless statement that may or may not be true, with an intention to induce a person or individual to act independent of it with the result that the person acts on it and suffers damages and harm. In other words, it is a wrong act or criminal deception with an intention to result in financial or personal gain.
Question - 1 
D went to a moneylender, Z, for the loan. D intentionally pledges the gold article with Z taking the loan. D knows that the article is not made of gold. After a few days, D leaves the village. Decide.

 

Option: 1 None

Option: 2 None

Option: 3 None

Option: 4 None

Read the passage carefully and answer the question

The Contract should be performed by the promisor himself. However, in certain cases, it can also be performed by his agents or legal representatives. It all depends upon the intention of the parties. Normally a contract can be performed by the following persons. 

  1. Promisor himself: If from the nature of the contract it appears that it was the intention of the parties that the promise should be performed by the promisor himself, such promise must be performed by the promisor. This usually applies to contracts involving personal skill, task, or artwork. 
  2. Promisor or his Agent: Where the contract does not involve the personal skill of the promisor, the contract could be performed by the promisor himself or by any competent person employed by him for the purpose, 
  3. Legal Representatives: The contracts which do not involve any personal skill or taste, may be performed by his legal representative after the death of the promisor.
  4. Third Person: In some cases, a contract may be performed by a third person provided the promisee accepts the arrangement. According to Section 41 of the Indian Contract Act, once the promisee accepts the performance from a third person, he cannot compel the promisor to perform the contract again. 
  5. Performance of Joint Promises: According to section 42 of the Indian Contract Act, when two or more persons have made a joint promise, the joint promisors must fulfill the promise jointly during their lifetime. And if any one of them dies, then his legal representatives and survivors must jointly fulfill the promise. 

Section 43 of the Indian Contract Act further provides that unless a contrary intention appears from the contract, each joint promisor may compel every other joint promisor to contribute equally to the performance of the promise. If any joint promisor makes a default in such contribution, the remaining joint promisors must bear the loss arising from such default in equal shares.

Question:

Aman received a box of chocolates from Basant and promised to pay Rupees 5000. Later on, A becomes bankrupt. Chetan who is a friend of Aman pays rupees 1000 to Besant on behalf of Aman. Aman is not aware of such a transaction. In civil court, insolvency proceedings have started against Aman. Meanwhile, Basant has also applied for a recovery of 5000 rupees. Decide.

Option: 1

Basant is entitled to recover the amount of 5000 from Aman.


Option: 2

Basant is entitled to recover the amount of 4000 from Aman.


Option: 3

Chetan is entitled to recover the amount of 1000 from Basant.


Option: 4

Basant cannot recover any amount from Aman as he has become insolvent.


Read the passage carefully and answer the question

The Contract should be performed by the promisor himself. However, in certain cases, it can also be performed by his agents or legal representatives. It all depends upon the intention of the parties. Normally a contract can be performed by the following persons. 

  1. Promisor himself: If from the nature of the contract it appears that it was the intention of the parties that the promise should be performed by the promisor himself, such promise must be performed by the promisor. This usually applies to contracts involving personal skill, task, or artwork. 
  2. Promisor or his Agent: Where the contract does not involve the personal skill of the promisor, the contract could be performed by the promisor himself or by any competent person employed by him for the purpose, 
  3. Legal Representatives: The contracts which do not involve any personal skill or taste, may be performed by his legal representative after the death of the promisor.
  4. Third Person: In some cases, a contract may be performed by a third person provided the promisee accepts the arrangement. According to Section 41 of the Indian Contract Act, once the promisee accepts the performance from a third person, he cannot compel the promisor to perform the contract again. 
  5. Performance of Joint Promises: According to section 42 of the Indian Contract Act, when two or more persons have made a joint promise, the joint promisors must fulfill the promise jointly during their lifetime. And if any one of them dies, then his legal representatives and survivors must jointly fulfill the promise. 

Section 43 of the Indian Contract Act further provides that unless a contrary intention appears from the contract, each joint promisor may compel every other joint promisor to contribute equally to the performance of the promise. If any joint promisor makes a default in such contribution, the remaining joint promisors must bear the loss arising from such default in equal shares.

Question:

K promises to paint a picture for L on a certain day, at a certain price. K dies before the day of the contract. Decide. 

Option: 1

The contract can be enforced by K’s representative 


Option: 2

The contract can be enforced by L


Option: 3

The contract can be enforced either by K’s representation or by L 


Option: 4

The contract cannot be enforced either by K’s representative, or L


Read the passage carefully and answer the question

The Contract should be performed by the promisor himself. However, in certain cases, it can also be performed by his agents or legal representatives. It all depends upon the intention of the parties. Normally a contract can be performed by the following persons. 

  1. Promisor himself: If from the nature of the contract it appears that it was the intention of the parties that the promise should be performed by the promisor himself, such promise must be performed by the promisor. This usually applies to contracts involving personal skill, task, or artwork. 
  2. Promisor or his Agent: Where the contract does not involve the personal skill of the promisor, the contract could be performed by the promisor himself or by any competent person employed by him for the purpose, 
  3. Legal Representatives: The contracts which do not involve any personal skill or taste, may be performed by his legal representative after the death of the promisor.
  4. Third Person: In some cases, a contract may be performed by a third person provided the promisee accepts the arrangement. According to Section 41 of the Indian Contract Act, once the promisee accepts the performance from a third person, he cannot compel the promisor to perform the contract again. 
  5. Performance of Joint Promises: According to section 42 of the Indian Contract Act, when two or more persons have made a joint promise, the joint promisors must fulfill the promise jointly during their lifetime. And if any one of them dies, then his legal representatives and survivors must jointly fulfill the promise. 

Section 43 of the Indian Contract Act further provides that unless a contrary intention appears from the contract, each joint promisor may compel every other joint promisor to contribute equally to the performance of the promise. If any joint promisor makes a default in such contribution, the remaining joint promisors must bear the loss arising from such default in equal shares.

Question:

Rohan has agreed to manage the catering services during the marriage of Sohan’s son Ramu. On the day of marriage, Rohan felt ill and sent his manager to the management of catering services. Ramu happily gets married to Tina and people appreciated the food and decoration of the event. When Rohan asked Sohan for the remaining amount, he denied it because Rohan himself had not managed so it is a breach. Decide.

 

Option: 1

Rohan is not entitled to get the remaining amount due to a breach of contract.


Option: 2

Rohan is entitled to sue Sohan for the remaining amount.


Option: 3

Rohan is entitled to sue Ramu because it was his marriage.


Option: 4

Instead of Rohan, his manager can only sue Sohan for the breach.


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

Natural justice is another name for common sense justice rules of natural justice are not in codified form these principles are embedded or ingrained or inbuilt in the conscience of human beings. It supplies the omission made in codified law and helps in the administration of justice. Natural justice is not only confined to ‘fairness’ it will take many shades and colours based on the context. Thus natural justice apart from ‘fairness’ also implies reasonableness, equity and equality. They are neither cast in a rigid mould nor can they be put in a legal straitjacket. These principles written by nature in the heart of mankind, they are immutable, inviolable, and inalienable.

It is true that the concept of natural justice is not very clear and, therefore, it is not possible to define it; yet the principles of natural justice are accepted and enforced. In the case of Ridge V. Baldwin Court observed that “in modern times have sometimes been expressed to the effect that natural justice is as vague as to be practically meaningless. But I would regard these as tainted by the perennial fallacy that because something cannot be cut and dried or nicely weighed or measured therefore it does not exist”. The term natural justice signifies fundamental rules of judicial procedure and fair play in action. According to Lord Widgery “the principles of natural justice were those fundamental rules; the breach will prevent justice from being seen to be done”. Earliest expression of ‘natural justice’ could be found in the philosophical expression of Roman Jurist (jus natural) and signified rules and principles for the conduct of man which were independent of enacted law or customs and could be discovered by the rational intelligence of man and would grow out of and conform to his nature.

The rule against bias that surfaced in 1610 in Dr Bonham's Casewhere Chief Justice Coke went so far as to say that the Court could declare an Act of Parliament void if it made a man as judge in his own cause, or otherwise ‘against common right and reason’. This was one of his grounds for disallowing the claim of the College of Physicians to fine and imprison Doctor Bonham, a Doctor of Physics of Cambridge University, for practising in the city of London without the licence of College of Physicians. The statute under which the College acted provided that fines should go half to the King half to the College so that the College had a financial interest in its own judgement and was judged in its own cause.

Question:

X is a student of a college and his father Y is a professor in the same college. In one instance, X is caught to be involved in unparliamentary activities inside the college campus. The enquiry committee is set up and Y is appointed as the head of the committee. Decide.

Option: 1

Y is a professor of the same college hence he can become a member of the enquiry committee


Option: 2

Y is X’s father hence he should not be a part of the enquiry committee


Option: 3

Y can be a part of the enquiry committee but cannot be its head


Option: 4

There is no rule that prevents the appointment of Y until he fulfils his function diligently


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

Natural justice is another name for common sense justice rules of natural justice are not in codified form these principles are embedded or ingrained or inbuilt in the conscience of human beings. It supplies the omission made in codified law and helps in the administration of justice. Natural justice is not only confined to ‘fairness’ it will take many shades and colours based on the context. Thus natural justice apart from ‘fairness’ also implies reasonableness, equity and equality. They are neither cast in a rigid mould nor can they be put in a legal straitjacket. These principles written by nature in the heart of mankind, they are immutable, inviolable, and inalienable.

It is true that the concept of natural justice is not very clear and, therefore, it is not possible to define it; yet the principles of natural justice are accepted and enforced. In the case of Ridge V. Baldwin Court observed that “in modern times have sometimes been expressed to the effect that natural justice is as vague as to be practically meaningless. But I would regard these as tainted by the perennial fallacy that because something cannot be cut and dried or nicely weighed or measured therefore it does not exist”. The term natural justice signifies fundamental rules of judicial procedure and fair play in action. According to Lord Widgery “the principles of natural justice were those fundamental rules; the breach will prevent justice from being seen to be done”. Earliest expression of ‘natural justice’ could be found in the philosophical expression of Roman Jurist (jus natural) and signified rules and principles for the conduct of man which were independent of enacted law or customs and could be discovered by the rational intelligence of man and would grow out of and conform to his nature.

The rule against bias that surfaced in 1610 in Dr Bonham's Casewhere Chief Justice Coke went so far as to say that the Court could declare an Act of Parliament void if it made a man as judge in his own cause, or otherwise ‘against common right and reason’. This was one of his grounds for disallowing the claim of the College of Physicians to fine and imprison Doctor Bonham, a Doctor of Physics of Cambridge University, for practising in the city of London without the licence of College of Physicians. The statute under which the College acted provided that fines should go half to the King half to the College so that the College had a financial interest in its own judgement and was judged in its own cause.

Question:

Mr X is an employee of a corporate office. His wife Y is a judge. In one instance, X is found to be involved in a money laundering case at his office. The office now files a suit and Y is appointed as the judge for this case. Decide.

Option: 1

Y is a judge by herself, hence can be appointed to adjudicate this case


Option: 2

Y is can be appointed as a judge only if she fulfils her responsibilities without any bias


Option: 3

Y can adjudicate the case and if the company finds the penalty to be insufficient then they can appeal against it


Option: 4

Y cannot be the judge in this case ab initio


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

Natural justice is another name for common sense justice rules of natural justice are not in codified form these principles are embedded or ingrained or inbuilt in the conscience of human beings. It supplies the omission made in codified law and helps in the administration of justice. Natural justice is not only confined to ‘fairness’ it will take many shades and colours based on the context. Thus natural justice apart from ‘fairness’ also implies reasonableness, equity and equality. They are neither cast in a rigid mould nor can they be put in a legal straitjacket. These principles written by nature in the heart of mankind, they are immutable, inviolable, and inalienable.

It is true that the concept of natural justice is not very clear and, therefore, it is not possible to define it; yet the principles of natural justice are accepted and enforced. In the case of Ridge V. Baldwin Court observed that “in modern times have sometimes been expressed to the effect that natural justice is as vague as to be practically meaningless. But I would regard these as tainted by the perennial fallacy that because something cannot be cut and dried or nicely weighed or measured therefore it does not exist”. The term natural justice signifies fundamental rules of judicial procedure and fair play in action. According to Lord Widgery “the principles of natural justice were those fundamental rules; the breach will prevent justice from being seen to be done”. Earliest expression of ‘natural justice’ could be found in the philosophical expression of Roman Jurist (jus natural) and signified rules and principles for the conduct of man which were independent of enacted law or customs and could be discovered by the rational intelligence of man and would grow out of and conform to his nature.

The rule against bias that surfaced in 1610 in Dr Bonham's Casewhere Chief Justice Coke went so far as to say that the Court could declare an Act of Parliament void if it made a man as judge in his own cause, or otherwise ‘against common right and reason’. This was one of his grounds for disallowing the claim of the College of Physicians to fine and imprison Doctor Bonham, a Doctor of Physics of Cambridge University, for practising in the city of London without the licence of College of Physicians. The statute under which the College acted provided that fines should go half to the King half to the College so that the College had a financial interest in its own judgement and was judged in its own cause.

Question:

X was a renowned cricketer in the 1980s. His son Y is a struggling cricketer who has been trying to get into the national team for many years. In the year 2020, X is appointed as a member of the selection committee. In the match which is supposed to decide the final team of the nation, Y scores a century and Z scores 65 runs. However, Z is selected to represent India and Y is not. Y now appeals against the decision, the main ground being the presence of X in the committee. Decide.

Option: 1

The appeal will stand as Y scored a century yet Z was selected after scoring 65 runs


Option: 2

The appeal will be quashed since X’s presence should have benefitted Y, but it didn’t, hence the rejection of Y is valid


Option: 3

The appeal will stand as X’s presence is a factor of bias


Option: 4

The appeal will be quashed since X was a renowned cricketer


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

Natural justice is another name for common sense justice rules of natural justice are not in codified form these principles are embedded or ingrained or inbuilt in the conscience of human beings. It supplies the omission made in codified law and helps in the administration of justice. Natural justice is not only confined to ‘fairness’ it will take many shades and colours based on the context. Thus natural justice apart from ‘fairness’ also implies reasonableness, equity and equality. They are neither cast in a rigid mould nor can they be put in a legal straitjacket. These principles written by nature in the heart of mankind, they are immutable, inviolable, and inalienable.

It is true that the concept of natural justice is not very clear and, therefore, it is not possible to define it; yet the principles of natural justice are accepted and enforced. In the case of Ridge V. Baldwin Court observed that “in modern times have sometimes been expressed to the effect that natural justice is as vague as to be practically meaningless. But I would regard these as tainted by the perennial fallacy that because something cannot be cut and dried or nicely weighed or measured therefore it does not exist”. The term natural justice signifies fundamental rules of judicial procedure and fair play in action. According to Lord Widgery “the principles of natural justice were those fundamental rules; the breach will prevent justice from being seen to be done”. Earliest expression of ‘natural justice’ could be found in the philosophical expression of Roman Jurist (jus natural) and signified rules and principles for the conduct of man which were independent of enacted law or customs and could be discovered by the rational intelligence of man and would grow out of and conform to his nature.

The rule against bias that surfaced in 1610 in Dr Bonham's Casewhere Chief Justice Coke went so far as to say that the Court could declare an Act of Parliament void if it made a man as judge in his own cause, or otherwise ‘against common right and reason’. This was one of his grounds for disallowing the claim of the College of Physicians to fine and imprison Doctor Bonham, a Doctor of Physics of Cambridge University, for practising in the city of London without the licence of College of Physicians. The statute under which the College acted provided that fines should go half to the King half to the College so that the College had a financial interest in its own judgement and was judged in its own cause.

Question:

X is a married judge who is well known for his honesty in the entire city. He has a son Y. One fine day Y gets kidnapped and the kidnapper demands a sum of 20 lakhs from X. However, the kidnapper is caught by the police. X is now appointed as the judge for the hearing of the kidnapper. Decide.

Option: 1

X can be the judge since he can decide the punishment better as he was the sufferer


Option: 2

X cannot be the judge since there is a possibility that he will be biased while delivering the judgement


Option: 3

X can be the judge since he is renowned for his honesty and fulfil his duties


Option: 4

X can be the judge but his statement can be appealed against if delivered with bias


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

Natural justice is another name for common sense justice rules of natural justice are not in codified form these principles are embedded or ingrained or inbuilt in the conscience of human beings. It supplies the omission made in codified law and helps in the administration of justice. Natural justice is not only confined to ‘fairness’ it will take many shades and colours based on the context. Thus natural justice apart from ‘fairness’ also implies reasonableness, equity and equality. They are neither cast in a rigid mould nor can they be put in a legal straitjacket. These principles written by nature in the heart of mankind, they are immutable, inviolable, and inalienable.

It is true that the concept of natural justice is not very clear and, therefore, it is not possible to define it; yet the principles of natural justice are accepted and enforced. In the case of Ridge V. Baldwin Court observed that “in modern times have sometimes been expressed to the effect that natural justice is as vague as to be practically meaningless. But I would regard these as tainted by the perennial fallacy that because something cannot be cut and dried or nicely weighed or measured therefore it does not exist”. The term natural justice signifies fundamental rules of judicial procedure and fair play in action. According to Lord Widgery “the principles of natural justice were those fundamental rules; the breach will prevent justice from being seen to be done”. Earliest expression of ‘natural justice’ could be found in the philosophical expression of Roman Jurist (jus natural) and signified rules and principles for the conduct of man which were independent of enacted law or customs and could be discovered by the rational intelligence of man and would grow out of and conform to his nature.

The rule against bias that surfaced in 1610 in Dr Bonham's Casewhere Chief Justice Coke went so far as to say that the Court could declare an Act of Parliament void if it made a man as judge in his own cause, or otherwise ‘against common right and reason’. This was one of his grounds for disallowing the claim of the College of Physicians to fine and imprison Doctor Bonham, a Doctor of Physics of Cambridge University, for practising in the city of London without the licence of College of Physicians. The statute under which the College acted provided that fines should go half to the King half to the College so that the College had a financial interest in its own judgement and was judged in its own cause.

Question:

X and Y have been married for five years. X is a judge and Y is a doctor. X is pretty much unhappy with his married life so he wants to divorce Y. Y refuses to agree to a divorce by mutual consent hence X files a suit against Y. Decide.

Option: 1

X cannot file a suit since he is a judge


Option: 2

X can file a suit against Y in legal capacity but not as a judge


Option: 3

X cannot file a divorce suit against Y since there is no valid ground for divorce


Option: 4

X can proceed with mutual consent but not contested divorce


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

In the case of M/S Halonex Limited, 59-A Noida vs State of U.P., it was held that “In reply to the aforesaid submission, learned counsel for opposite party no.2 submitted that the case of the applicants that no amount is due from their side to the complainant is a matter of defence which cannot be considered at this stage. It has been submitted that the term 'entrustment' as used in Section 405 IPC has been given a wider interpretation. It has been submitted that the goods returned by the complainant to the Company for replacement or for reimbursement would be deemed to have been entrusted to the Company and as the applicants 2 & 3 were handling its affair they become responsible. To buttress the said submission, the learned counsel for the complainant drew the attention of the Court to a decision of the Apex Court in the case of Ram Narayan Popli Vs. Central Bureau of Investigation: (2003) 3 SCC 641, wherein it was observed that: "the term "entrustment" is not necessarily a term of law. It may have different implications in different contexts. In its most general signification all it imports is the handing over possession for some purpose which may not imply the conferring of any proprietary right at all." Attention was also drawn to an observation made in the judgment of the aforesaid case, where it was observed that: "to establish the charge of criminal breach of trust, the prosecution is not obliged to prove the precise mode of conversion, misappropriation or misapplication by the accused of the property entrusted to him or over which he has dominion. The principal ingredient of the offence being dishonest misappropriation or conversion which may not ordinarily be a matter of direct proof, entrustment of property and failure in breach of an obligation to account for the property entrusted if proved, may, in the light of other circumstances, justifiably lead to an inference of dishonest misappropriation or conversion”.

Question:

X tracks down an expensive necklace on the road. Not knowing to whom it belongs. X sells it promptly to a jeweller without attempting to find the owner or submitting the necklace to the authorities. Decide the liability of X.

Option: 1

Extortion


Option: 2

Criminal breach of trust


Option: 3

Theft


Option: 4

Criminal misappropriation of Property


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