Legal Reasoning for CLAT 2025 - Legal Aptitude, Question Papers, Tips & Tricks

Legal Reasoning for CLAT 2025 - Legal Aptitude, Question Papers, Tips & Tricks

Edited By Sumeet Sudarshan | Updated on Aug 09, 2024 04:04 PM IST | #CLAT

Do you want to improve your Legal Reasoning abilities for the CLAT? Improve your score by using these excellent CLAT Legal Reasoning preparation strategies! Legal Reasoning is an important component of the Common Law Admission Test (CLAT), which assesses a candidate's ability to grasp and apply legal ideas. CLAT Legal reasoning is a unique blend of logical analysis and legal knowledge, and students must understand its core to perform well on the Exam.It is seen from the previous year's trends that legal reasoning covers a major part of the examination. The pattern of examination has changed since 2020 the legal reasoning questions for CLAT are passage-based But not like unseen passages. The examination has started to give more critical reasoning types where the aspirants need to comprehend the passage and answer based on their understanding of the CLAT legal reasoning questions provided.

This Story also Contains
  1. Key Highlights of the Legal Reasoning for CLAT 2025 Exam
  2. How to Study for CLAT Legal Reasoning Section
  3. Types of Questions Asked in the CLAT Legal Reasoning Section
  4. CLAT Legal Reasoning Questions with Answers
Legal Reasoning for CLAT 2025 - Legal Aptitude, Question Papers, Tips & Tricks
Legal Reasoning for CLAT 2025 - Legal Aptitude, Question Papers, Tips & Tricks

Last year in 2024 when the time was kept the same that is 120 minutes but the questions were reduced to 120 from 150 questions. The legal section where reasoning and knowledge play an important role was not affected at all. Since 32 Legal Reasoning questions for CLAT were asked from the legal section itself. The questions were mostly dependent upon the legal current affairs and understanding of the passage.Check out this article for deep insights and techniques to improve your CLAT 2025 score.

Also check - Logical Reasoning Questions for CLAT PDF 2025 with Detailed Solutions

Key Highlights of the Legal Reasoning for CLAT 2025 Exam

The following are the main elements of the CLAT Legal Reasoning part that applicants should not overlook:

  • The CLAT 2025 Legal Reasoning part comprises between 30 and 32 questions, with one mark for each correct answer.

  • For each incorrect response, a deduction of 0.25 marks will be applied.

  • Questions on legal comprehension will be included in the CLAT 2025 Legal Reasoning portion. This means that texts pertaining to any static or current legal problem will be followed by five to six questions.

  • There will be both plain-spoken and legal reasoning-based questions. The simple questions will assess the student's ability to present the most compelling argument or conclusion about the legal matter covered in the passage. In order for the pupils to respond to such questions, they needed to have high, objective comprehension abilities.

  • The second type of questions will focus on legal reasoning; that is, students will be presented with a hypothetical scenario and asked to make a decision based on the legal information they have read in the text.

  • The prior pattern of principle-fact-based questions served as the foundation for most Legal Reasoning problems. The sole distinction is that a section about law will be included in place of a legal concept.

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How to Study for CLAT Legal Reasoning Section

The answer is very simple to prepare for the CLAT Legal Reasoning section 2025. Read newspapers carefully, especially the editorial and opinion sections. The newspaper comprises political news as well the impact, it must be studied carefully! The consequences of such alterations modifications and amendments can be asked an examination of the changes in the situation.

Before 2020, CLAT Legal Reasoning questions were fact and principle-based but now the examination is more comprehension and critical reasoning based. However, the essence of legal reasoning questions for 2020 is still there in terms of the questions that are extracted from the passage that are more situation-based. So it is most important for students to study comprehend and understand rather than just memorise facts. By solving CLAT Previous Years Question papers students will be able to understand the type of questions going to be asked in the exam and can study accordingly.

1. Important topics for CLAT 2025

The CLAT 2025 Legal Reasoning section comprises of vast syllabus containing Criminal Law, Contract law, Torts, Constitution of India, Judiciary and many more. Out of all the CLAT Legal reasoning topics the most important ones are listed below.

  1. Constitution on India

  2. Criminal Law

  3. Family Law

  4. Torts Law

  5. International law

  6. Important amendments related to the CLAT exam

  7. The advent of new bills and acts and their consequences

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You may also check - CLAT Legal Reasoning Syllabus

2. Legal discussion questions at CLAT often revolve around current legal issues and landmark cases. Stay up-to-date with the latest legal news by reading newspapers and legal magazines and following relevant online sources. This helps establish context and understand the practical application of the principles of legal thinking. The CLAT evaluates a candidate's comprehension of recent legal developments and concerns. You can better understand the most recent legislation, court rulings, amendments, and legal reforms in a variety of legal fields, including tort, criminal, and constitutional law, by keeping up with legal current events. This information reflects your interest in the topic and your capacity for in-depth analysis of legal concerns. For a better understanding of CLAT legal reasoning question types, students can download the Legal Reasoning questions and answers pdf where they will find the CLAT Previous years' question papers with proper answer key and detailed solutions.

3. Legal current affairs introduce you to the continuous arguments and squabbles in the legal community. Your ability to present arguments from various perspectives and to create a well-rounded perspective on a variety of legal topics is enhanced by this understanding. You can examine legal issues from a wider societal and political perspective, which could be helpful when responding to essay-based CLAT Legal Reasoning questions. Solving legal reasoning questions day to day makes one's comprehension of the law easier.

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Types of Questions Asked in the CLAT Legal Reasoning Section

The CLAT Legal Reasoning questions types are as follows:

  • Your capacity for legal thinking, research aptitude, and problem-solving is assessed by the Legal thinking Questions on CLAT 2025.

  • Your ability to apply legal concepts to a factual situation and your legal knowledge are tested in the Legal Reasoning part.

  • Your legal knowledge, research prowess, and problem-solving skills are evaluated in this part. The Indian Penal Code, Tort Law, and Contract Law are significant subjects.

  • Principles from the Criminal Procedure Code, Family Law, other international laws and conventions, etc., could also be tested against you. Thus, you must rehearse key subjects for the CLAT.

CLAT Legal Reasoning MCQs

Below are a few examples of Legal Reasoning questions for CLAT. If a student wants to refer to more practice questions, they can refer to the CLAT Study Material where all the topics of CLAT Legal reasoning sections are covered. They can see the section-wise legal reasoning questions with answers along with the concept covered for better understanding.

You may also check:

CLAT Legal Reasoning Questions with Answers

Let's understand the concept better by solving a few examples of CLAT legal reasoning questions

Passage 1:

Justice MM Sundresh of the Supreme Court observed that there is a need to codify the law enabling law enforcement agencies to carry out surveillance while ensuring that fundamental rights, including the right to privacy, are safeguarded. “Any action facilitating State machinery must be backed by the authority of law. For that, there must be a codified law that empowers an investigating agency to undertake an act of surveillance. Needless to state, such a law must be subject to the Constitutional mandate, with specific reference to Part III of the Constitution. This would prevent any arbitrary action while preserving the privacy of the individual,” he said. He emphasised that the need of the hour is to take note of the voice and concerns expressed in the Puttaswamy judgement, which held that privacy is a fundamental right. There is a need to uphold privacy through the doctrine of proportionality, the judge explained. A clear demarcation is needed by drawing a Lakshman Rekha during a criminal investigation (when surveillance is used),” he said. Speaking on the need for surveillance, Justice Sundresh said, “Surveillance and privacy must live and function together. As long as there is privacy, surveillance will certainly continue. The modern world has indeed become a difficult place to live and to maintain peace. The cost of peace is obviously very high. Any State which lacks expert surveillance would be considered a weak one and susceptible to attack from unknown sources. It may also be required in the larger interest of the public.”

1) W was found manipulating government records pertaining to the funding designated for the introduction of nuclear weapons. It was believed that W was exchanging information with the enemy nation. His mobile phone and other electronic devices were taken as soon as he was suspected, and the entire legal process was followed for questioning. In order to gather concrete evidence against him, his electronic gadgets were carefully examined. He claimed that his right to privacy was violated in this case. Identify whether his allegations are true.

(a) If the court deems that the proper procedure was not followed, his claims will be upheld.

(b) Since the requirements of his right to privacy have been met, it can be argued that his right was violated.

(c) Since he had violated the nation’s laws, it could be argued that his right to privacy had not been violated.

(d) The violation of privacy that W claims did not occur because the entire process was carried out by the law.

Correct Answer : D

Explanation: Under the passage, any action that aids State machinery must be supported by legal authority. The claim of privacy breach claimed by W cannot be upheld because every step of the process was done following the usual terms and conditions. We rule out options A and B as a result. Since the justification offered by option C does not line up with the information in the passage, it is not

the correct answer.

2) V arrived at his house from work extremely late at night. Even though his job hours were from 9 to 6, this became his normal habit. He had been returning home by 11 or midnight for the last two months. His wife saw this and thought he could be keeping something from her. The following morning, she went with V to his office to find out. There was no proof against him that she could locate. She then decided to accompany him back home, where she was shocked to see that V was busy organising their 25th wedding anniversary. She felt guilty about questioning V.V was hurt to learn this and promptly filed a complaint alleging that his wife had violated his right to privacy. Check the veracity of his assertion.

(a) His claim cannot be upheld since his wife cannot be accused of violating his right to privacy.

(b) His claim cannot be upheld because his wife had a legitimate reason to accompany him to and from work.

(C) She illegally followed him without his permission, thus his claim will be upheld.

(d) To remark on the veracity of V’s claims, more information is needed from the passage.

Correct Answer : D

Explanation: In accordance with the passage, In order to do such, there must be written legislation authorising an investigating agency to perform an act of surveillance. A law of this nature must adhere to the requirements of the Constitution, specifically Part III of the Constitution. In addition to protecting the person’s privacy, this would stop any arbitrary action. The whole passage is about state surveillance. As a result, we rule all options A, B and C.

3) P had CCTV cameras set up in each of the home’s rooms. There were 5 staff members in total. Since a few months ago, X and Z have been scheming to rob him at gunpoint, and they finally succeeded. The police requested that they check the CCTV footage from each room to find the burglars. P agreed with this. Determine if his right to privacy has been violated in this particular case.

a. Since P granted his permission for the investigation, his right to privacy has not been breached.

b. He was forced to give the police permission to access his CCTV footage, which is a violation of his right to privacy

c. P’s right to privacy was not breached because the investigation was conducted for his benefit.

d. Since the tape was necessary for the capture of the criminals, P’s right to privacy was not breached.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: An individual's right to privacy can be breached if their privacy is invaded in an unauthorised and illegal manner. It is clear from using common sense that P’s right to privacy has not been harmed since he gave the police permission to access the CCTV. We rule out option B as a result. Options C and D are ruled out since they both offer reasoning that is illogical, absurd, and lacking in any legal justification.

4) According to Justice MM Sundresh of the Supreme Court, what is the key aspect that needs to be ensured while enabling law enforcement agencies to carry out surveillance?

a.The surveillance activities should be subject to the Constitutional mandate and the fundamental right to privacy.

b.There should be a clear demarcation drawn during criminal investigations to protect individual privacy.

c. The surveillance activities should be governed by a codified law that upholds the doctrine of proportionality.

d.The surveillance activities should be carried out in the larger interest of the public and the security of the State.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: Justice Sundresh emphasises the need for a codified law that empowers investigating agencies to undertake surveillance while preserving the privacy of individuals and preventing arbitrary actions. Option B is incorrect because although a clear demarcation is mentioned, it is not the key aspect emphasised by Justice Sundaresh in relation to enabling surveillance. Option C is incorrect because although the doctrine of proportionality is mentioned, it is not the primary focus in the context of enabling surveillance. Option D is incorrect because although the larger interest of the public is mentioned, it does not capture the specific aspect highlighted by Justice Sundaresh regarding the Constitutional mandate and the fundamental right to privacy.

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Passage 2:

(Constitution-based example question)

Last year, several PILs were filed in the Supreme Court challenging the "bulldozer action" taken by the authorities in States of Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh to demolish the houses of persons accused in cases like riots. The petitioners contended that the authorities were resorting to extra-judicial and disproportionate actions to punish the accused, even before Their guilt is established after a legal trial. The authorities maintained that They are taking action against unauthorised constructions. Last year, the Supreme Court had asked the Uttar Pradesh government not to carry out demolition activities except in accordance with the procedure

established by law. In response, the State of Uttar Pradesh submitted an affidavit that the demolitions carried out in Kanpur and Prayagraj were done by Local Development Authorities strictly in accordance with the Uttar Pradesh Urban Planning and Development Act, 1973. The State had categorically denied that the demolitions were linked to riots and maintained that the process was initiated for violation of the building rules.

Q1. Does the action by Uttar Pradesh government comes under extra judicial functioning

A) Yes, the action constitutes extra-judicial functioning as it involves demolitions without proper legal process or court orders.

B) No, the action is a legitimate response by the government to address illegal constructions and maintain law and order.

C) It is difficult to determine based on the information provided.

D) None of the above.

Correct answer: C)

Explanation: It is difficult to determine based on the information provided.Without additional and more specific information about the circumstances and the legal basis for the demolitions, it is challenging to definitively classify the action as either extra-judicial or a legitimate response by the government. Further investigation and context are needed to make a conclusive assessment.

Q2. In a village named Gokuldam, a woman was killed by the villagers as she was suspected of being involved in witchcraft. Is this scenario a case of extra-judicial killings

A) Yes, because the killing was carried out by the villagers without involving the authorities or following due legal process.

B) Yes, because the village council ordered the killing without any trial or investigation.

C) No, because the villagers acted in self-defence to protect themselves from potential harm caused by witchcraft.

D) No, because witchcraft is illegal, and the villagers were justified in taking action to prevent any harm to the community.

Correct Answer: A)

Explanation: In this scenario, the killing of the woman by the villagers based on suspicion of witchcraft is an example of extra-judicial killing. Extra-judicial killings occur when individuals or groups take the law into their own hands and carry out actions that bypass the legal system and due process. In this case, the villagers acted as judge, jury, and executioner, without involving the proper authorities or granting the woman any opportunity for a fair trial or defence. Option A is the correct answer as it correctly identifies this situation as a case of extra-judicial killings.

Q3. In the previous question would your answer change if the killing was done by a police officer

A) Yes, it is still considered an extra-judicial killing, as the police officer acted without following the due legal process.

B) Yes, it is no longer an extra-judicial killing, as the police officer acted in the line of duty to maintain law and order.

C) No, it is no longer an extra-judicial killing, as the police officer has the authority to use force when dealing with suspected criminals.

D) No, it is still considered an extra-judicial killing, as the police officer did not have the legal right to execute the woman without a trial.

Correct Answer: A)

Explanation: Even if the killing was done by a police officer, it would still be classified as an extra-judicial killing. Extra-judicial killings involve actions taken by individuals, including law enforcement officers, without proper legal authorization or due process. In this scenario, the police officer bypassed the legal system, acting as judge and executioner, without granting the woman a fair trial or due process of law. Option A is the correct answer as it accurately identifies the situation as an extra-judicial killing, regardless of whether it was carried out by a police officer.

Q4. Mr Jethalal had shop in front of one of the houses that was demolished in the drive by Uttar Pradesh government. As a good human he felt the need to file a PIL as the poor people were not aware of their rights. So he was one of the person to file the PIL. Is his PIL maintainable in the court of law

A) Yes, Mr. Jethalal's PIL is maintainable, as he has a direct personal interest in the matter due to his shop being affected.

B) Yes, Mr. Jethalal's PIL is maintainable, as he is genuinely concerned about the violation of the poor people's rights.

C) No, Mr. Jethalal's PIL is not maintainable, as he does not have a direct personal interest in the demolition drive.

D) No, Mr. Jethalal's PIL is not maintainable, as PILs can only be filed by non-governmental organisations and public interest groups.

Correct Answer:B)

Explanation: Yes, Mr. Jethalal's PIL is maintainable, as he is genuinely concerned about the violation of the poor people's rights. Explanation:

Public Interest Litigations (PILs) are a legal mechanism that allows any individual or organisation to file a petition on behalf of the public interest or for the protection of fundamental rights. Mr. Jethalal's PIL is maintainable because he is genuinely concerned about the violation of the poor people's rights, and he seeks to address the issue in the larger public interest. The fact that he had a shop in front of one of the demolished houses may also contribute to his standing to file the PIL, as he has witnessed the impact of the government's actions firsthand. Option B is the correct answer as it accurately identifies the PIL is maintainable due to Mr. Jethalal's genuine concern for the rights of the affected people.

5.Which of the following is/ are correct in light of the passage?

I] a justification against an act can be given by stating a law

ii] guilt has to be proved before taking an action against the accused

iii] if the guilt like the riots are proven the government has the right to demolish the house of people

iv] the district court has no rights to order the state government on their actionsA) Only i) and ii) are correct in light of the passage.

B) Only ii) and iii) are correct in light of the passage.

C) Only iii) and iv) are correct in light of the passage.

D) Only i), ii), and iii) are correct in light of the passage.

Correct Answer:A) Only i) and ii) are correct in light of the passage.

Explanation: Based on the information provided in the passage, the correct

statements are as follows:

i) A justification against an act can be given by stating a law: The passage mentions that the Uttar Pradesh government stated that they were acting in accordance with the law to justify the demolition drive.

ii) Guilt has to be proved before taking action against the accused: The passage does not explicitly mention this point, but it can be inferred that guilt must be established through proper legal procedures before taking action against any accused person or group.

iii) If the guilt, like the riots, is proven, the government has the right to demolish the house of people: The passage mentions that the petitioners accused the government of demolishing houses because the people were involved in riots. However, it does not confirm whether this guilt has been legally proven. As per the passage, the government claimed that the houses were constructed illegally, but it did not specifically mention any proven guilt related to riots as the basis for the demolition.

iv) The district court has no right to order the state government on their actions: The passage does not provide any information about the district court's involvement or authority in this matter. Hence, this statement is not supported by the passage. Therefore, only statements i) and ii) are correct in light of the passage. Option A is correct.

Also, check - Preparation tips for CLAT Legal Reasoning

Passage 3

The Calcutta High Court has clarified that the mere transfer of money from a husband to his wife for the purchase of property would not qualify as a benami transaction"In the Indian society, if a husband supplies the consideration money for acquiring property in the name of his wife, such fact does not necessarily imply benami transaction. The source of money is, no doubt, an important factor but not a decisive one. The intention of the supplier of the consideration money is the vital fact to be proved by the party who asserts benami." In India, two kinds of benami transactions are generally recognized. Where a person buys a property with his own money but in the name of another person without any intention to benefit such other person, the transaction is called benami. In that case, the transferee holds the property for the benefit of the person who has contributed the purchase money, and he is the real owner. The second case which is loosely termed as a benami transaction is a case where a person who is the owner of the property executes a conveyance in favour of another without the intention of transferring the title to the property thereunder. In this case, the transferor continues to be the real owner."

Q1) Mr. X gives money to Ms. Y to purchase a property. The property is registered under the name of Ms. Y. Later, it is discovered that Ms. Y is just a nominal owner, and the real owner is Mr. X, who has been financing the property. This transaction comes to the notice of the authorities. Under the Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Act, 1988, amended in 2016, which of the Is the following likely to occur?

A. The property will be confiscated by the government, and no compensation will be given to either party.

B. The property will remain with Ms. Y, and Mr. X will have to pay a fine.

C. The property will be transferred to Mr. X's name, and both parties will be fined.

D. There are no legal consequences for benami transactions in India.

Correct option: A

Explanation:The property will be confiscated by the government, and no ompensation will be given to either party. This answer is correct because under the amended Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Act, if a property is found to be held as benami, it can be confiscated by the government without any compensation to the benamidar or the real owner. Both parties could also face additional penalties such as fines or imprisonment.

Q2) Mrs. A purchases a property, but the funds for the purchase come from an unknown source. The authorities suspect this to be a benami transaction. Which of the following would be required to prove this transaction as benami according to the Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Act, 1988, as amended in

2016?

A. Proof that Mrs. A is not the real owner of the property.

B. Proof that the funds came from another person who is the real owner.

C. Both A and B.

D. Neither A nor B, benami transactions are impossible to prove.

Correct option: C

Explanation: Both A and B. To prove a transaction as benami, it needs to be demonstrated that the registered owner (Mrs. A in this case) is not the real owner and that the funds for the purchase came from another person who is the actual owner. Only having one of these proofs would not be sufficient to establish the transaction as benami under the act

Q3) Mr. B acquires a property using his own funds, but the property is registered in the name of his minor daughter, Ms. C. Under the Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Act, how is this transaction likely to be treated?

A. As a benami transaction, because the property is in Ms. C's name but the funds came from Mr. B.

B. As a legal transaction, a parent is allowed to buy property in the name of a minor child.

C. As a benami transaction, because minor children cannot legally own property in India.

D. None of the above.

Correct option:B

Explanation:

As a legal transaction, because a parent is allowed to buy property in the name of a minor child. According to the Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Act, certain cases are exempted from being considered benami transactions. One such exception is when an individual buys a property in the name of his/ her spouse or any child (including a minor child). Therefore, this transaction is likely to be treated as legal.

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Q4)Mr. X and Mr. Y jointly own a property. Mr. X has provided 70% of the funds for the property and Mr. Y has provided 30%. However, in the property documents, the ownership is split evenly. How is this likely to be viewed under the Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Act, 1988, as amended in 2016?

A. As a benami transaction, because the ownership is not proportionate to the funds provided.

B. As a legal transaction, because both parties have contributed to the purchase.

C. As a benami transaction, because one party has contributed more than the other.

D. The Act does not provide guidelines for such scenarios.

Correct option: B

Explanation: As a legal transaction, because both parties have contributed to the purchase. The Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Act is primarily intended to deal with situations where a property is purchased by one person but is registered under the name of another person who has not contributed towards the purchase. In this case, both Mr. X and Mr. Y have contributed to the purchase, even though their contributions are not equal. Therefore, it is unlikely that this would be considered a benami transaction under the Act.

Q 5] Mr. Z purchases a property under his brother Mr. Y's name, using his own funds. The property is registered under Mr. Y's name. Mr. Y is financially dependent on Mr. Z, but there is no concrete evidence to prove this financial dependency. Under the Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Act, how is this transaction likely to be treated?

A. As a legal transaction, because family members can buy property for each other.

B. As a benami transaction, because the property is in Mr. Y's name but the funds came from Mr. Z.

C. As a legal transaction, because there is no proof of financial dependency.

D. None of the above.

Correct option: B

Explanation: As a benami transaction, because the property is in Mr. Y's name but the funds came from Mr. Z. Even though Mr. Y and Mr. Z are brothers, the transaction can still be considered benami if the person in whose name the property is purchased is not the one paying for it. The Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Act does not provide an exception for transactions between siblings. The lack of evidence of financial dependency is not likely to change this interpretation.

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Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

1. How many questions are there in the legal aptitude sections?

There will be 4 to 5 passages in CLAT legal aptitude. Each passage will be followed by a series of 4-5 MCQs. Overall, there will be a total of 28-32 questions.

2. Is the legal aptitude section removed from the syllabus of CLAT 2025?

The legal aptitude section is now known as legal reasoning. These passages will relate to real-life circumstances or scenarios involving legal issues, public policy issues, or moral philosophical dilemmas.

3. Is the legal reasoning section tough to solve?

The legal reasoning section is considered to be the toughest section but with consistent practice of mock test you can easily crack this section.

4. What are the topics under legal reasoning for CLAT?

Important topics under legal reasoning for CLAT include recent legal news both current and static, public policy questions, moral philosophical enquiries, awareness of contemporary legal and moral issues.

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Questions related to CLAT

Have a question related to CLAT ?

Hi,

Based on your previous year analysis, According to your CLAT Rank and category. There are many good colleges in which you have chance of getting a seat for 5 year BA LLB course. some of the best colleges in which you have chances of getting a seat are

  • National University of Study and Research in Law, Law
  • Gujarat National Law University
  • Tamil Nadu National Law University
  • Dr B.R Ambedkar National Law University , Sonipat
  • Himachal Pradesh National Law University, Shimla
  • National Law University, Cuttack

You can predict more law colleges in which you can get admission using CLAT college predictor .

Hope this information will help you

Use CLAT predictor tool to know your chances in nlus and it also helps in filing choice preference which plays important role in admission counselling process.

However,this score is not good for NLU but keep an eye on later rounds if there is seat left mostly in tier 3 law colleges.

Even though it might seem hard, stay hopeful. Do your research, keep up with counseling,

Good luck!!

Hello Aditya,

With an OBC rank of 2,284 in CLAT 2025 and domicile of Uttar Pradesh , you have a good chance of securing admission to Dr. Ram Manohar Lohiya National Law University (RMLNLU), Lucknow under the state domicile reservation. The cutoff for RMLNLU varies each year depending on factors like the number of applicants, seat availability, and category-wise rank distribution.

For OBC candidates with UP domicile, the closing rank is usually higher than the general category cutoff but lower than other reserved categories like SC/ST. Based on previous years' trends, your rank falls well within the likely range for admission under the domicile and OBC category.

Steps to Confirm:

  1. Check the CLAT counseling process and register for state domicile reservations.

  2. Refer to the RMLNLU-specific cutoff for OBC-UP domicile during the counseling process.

  3. Keep an eye on the allotment list to see if your rank is within the cutoff.

Your domicile gives you an added advantage, so make sure you properly document it during the application process.

I would recommend you to use CLAT College Predictor Tool by Careers360 to get the list of possible colleges you can get with your rank.

I hope this answer helps you. If you have more queries then feel free to share your questions with us we will be happy to assist you.

Thank you and wishing you all the best for your bright future.


Hello Kuldeep,

With a CLAT 2025 rank of 21,000 , admission into National Law Universities (NLUs) is unlikely as the cutoff ranks for NLUs, even for reserved categories, generally close much earlier. However, several private law colleges and universities accept CLAT scores and may offer you admission. Some of these colleges include:

  1. UPES Dehradun
    Known for specialized law courses in energy, corporate, and technology law.

  2. NMIMS School of Law, Mumbai
    Offers good placement opportunities and infrastructure.

  3. MIT World Peace University, Pune
    Offers modern legal education with good campus facilities.

  4. Alliance University, Bangalore
    Recognized for its legal programs and vibrant campus life.

  5. Christ University, Bangalore (if eligible through other criteria)
    May consider CLAT scores in combination with its internal processes.

Additionally, private universities like Amity Law School , ICFAI Law School , and Sharda University also accept students with CLAT scores at this rank. Ensure you confirm individual college admission criteria and deadlines, as some might also have alternate pathways for admission.


I would recommend you to use CLAT College Predictor Tool by Careers360 to get the list of possible colleges you can get with your rank.



I hope this answer helps you. If you have more queries then feel free to share your questions with us we will be happy to assist you.

Thank you and wishing you all the best for your bright future.




Hello there,

With an AIR of 229 under the PwD category in CLAT, you are eligible for counseling and can participate in the process. However, getting admission into NALSAR Hyderabad depends on the cut-off for the PwD category, which tends to be competitive but varies each year based on the overall results.

To maximize your chances, you should:

  1. Check the previous years’ cut-offs for PwD candidates at NALSAR to get an idea of whether your rank falls within the range.

  2. Participate in the CLAT counseling to explore options at various National Law Universities (NLUs). Even if NALSAR might be challenging to get this year, other top NLUs may be a possibility.

  3. Keep an eye on the official CLAT website for updates on counseling dates and procedures.

It’s advisable to research the current cut-off trends from the official counseling guidelines or discuss with admission officers.


I would recommend you to use CLAT College Predictor Tool by Careers360 to get the list of possible colleges you can get with your rank.


I hope this answer helps you. If you have more queries then feel free to share your questions with us we will be happy to assist you.

Thank you and wishing you all the best for your bright future.



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Passage 1
Read the passage below and answer the following question.
Cheating is considered a criminal offence under the Indian Penal Code. It is done to gain profit or advantage from another person by using some deceitful means. The person who deceives another knows for the fact that it would place the other person in an unfair situation. Cheating as an offence can be made punishable under Section 420 of the IPC. Scope of Section 415 Cheating is defined under Section 415 of the Indian Penal Code as whoever fraudulently or dishonestly deceives a person to induce that person to deliver a property to any person or to consent to retain any property. If a person intentionally induces a person to do or omit to do any act which he would not have done if he was not deceived to do so and the act has caused harm to that person in body, mind, reputation, or property, then the person who fraudulently, dishonestly or intentionally induced the other person is said to cheat. Any dishonest concealment of facts that can deceive a person to do an act that he would not have done otherwise is also cheating within the meaning of this section. Essential Ingredients of Cheating requires · deception of any person. Fraudulently or dishonestly inducing that person to deliver any property to any person or to consent that any person shall retain any property; or · intentionally inducing a person to do or omit to do anything which he would not do or omit if he were not so deceived, and the act or omission causes or is likely to cause damage or harm to that person in body, mind, reputation or property.
Deceit– a tort arising from an untrue or false statement of facts which are made by a person, recklessly or knowingly, with an intention that it shall be acted upon by the other person, who would suffer damages as a result. 
Fraud – a false or untrue representation of the fact, that is made with the knowledge of its falsity or without the belief in its truth or a reckless statement that may or may not be true, with an intention to induce a person or individual to act independent of it with the result that the person acts on it and suffers damages and harm. In other words, it is a wrong act or criminal deception with an intention to result in financial or personal gain.
Question - 1 
D went to a moneylender, Z, for the loan. D intentionally pledges the gold article with Z taking the loan. D knows that the article is not made of gold. After a few days, D leaves the village. Decide.

 

Option: 1 None

Option: 2 None

Option: 3 None

Option: 4 None

Read the passage carefully and answer the question

The Contract should be performed by the promisor himself. However, in certain cases, it can also be performed by his agents or legal representatives. It all depends upon the intention of the parties. Normally a contract can be performed by the following persons. 

  1. Promisor himself: If from the nature of the contract it appears that it was the intention of the parties that the promise should be performed by the promisor himself, such promise must be performed by the promisor. This usually applies to contracts involving personal skill, task, or artwork. 
  2. Promisor or his Agent: Where the contract does not involve the personal skill of the promisor, the contract could be performed by the promisor himself or by any competent person employed by him for the purpose, 
  3. Legal Representatives: The contracts which do not involve any personal skill or taste, may be performed by his legal representative after the death of the promisor.
  4. Third Person: In some cases, a contract may be performed by a third person provided the promisee accepts the arrangement. According to Section 41 of the Indian Contract Act, once the promisee accepts the performance from a third person, he cannot compel the promisor to perform the contract again. 
  5. Performance of Joint Promises: According to section 42 of the Indian Contract Act, when two or more persons have made a joint promise, the joint promisors must fulfill the promise jointly during their lifetime. And if any one of them dies, then his legal representatives and survivors must jointly fulfill the promise. 

Section 43 of the Indian Contract Act further provides that unless a contrary intention appears from the contract, each joint promisor may compel every other joint promisor to contribute equally to the performance of the promise. If any joint promisor makes a default in such contribution, the remaining joint promisors must bear the loss arising from such default in equal shares.

Question:

Aman received a box of chocolates from Basant and promised to pay Rupees 5000. Later on, A becomes bankrupt. Chetan who is a friend of Aman pays rupees 1000 to Besant on behalf of Aman. Aman is not aware of such a transaction. In civil court, insolvency proceedings have started against Aman. Meanwhile, Basant has also applied for a recovery of 5000 rupees. Decide.

Option: 1

Basant is entitled to recover the amount of 5000 from Aman.


Option: 2

Basant is entitled to recover the amount of 4000 from Aman.


Option: 3

Chetan is entitled to recover the amount of 1000 from Basant.


Option: 4

Basant cannot recover any amount from Aman as he has become insolvent.


Read the passage carefully and answer the question

The Contract should be performed by the promisor himself. However, in certain cases, it can also be performed by his agents or legal representatives. It all depends upon the intention of the parties. Normally a contract can be performed by the following persons. 

  1. Promisor himself: If from the nature of the contract it appears that it was the intention of the parties that the promise should be performed by the promisor himself, such promise must be performed by the promisor. This usually applies to contracts involving personal skill, task, or artwork. 
  2. Promisor or his Agent: Where the contract does not involve the personal skill of the promisor, the contract could be performed by the promisor himself or by any competent person employed by him for the purpose, 
  3. Legal Representatives: The contracts which do not involve any personal skill or taste, may be performed by his legal representative after the death of the promisor.
  4. Third Person: In some cases, a contract may be performed by a third person provided the promisee accepts the arrangement. According to Section 41 of the Indian Contract Act, once the promisee accepts the performance from a third person, he cannot compel the promisor to perform the contract again. 
  5. Performance of Joint Promises: According to section 42 of the Indian Contract Act, when two or more persons have made a joint promise, the joint promisors must fulfill the promise jointly during their lifetime. And if any one of them dies, then his legal representatives and survivors must jointly fulfill the promise. 

Section 43 of the Indian Contract Act further provides that unless a contrary intention appears from the contract, each joint promisor may compel every other joint promisor to contribute equally to the performance of the promise. If any joint promisor makes a default in such contribution, the remaining joint promisors must bear the loss arising from such default in equal shares.

Question:

K promises to paint a picture for L on a certain day, at a certain price. K dies before the day of the contract. Decide. 

Option: 1

The contract can be enforced by K’s representative 


Option: 2

The contract can be enforced by L


Option: 3

The contract can be enforced either by K’s representation or by L 


Option: 4

The contract cannot be enforced either by K’s representative, or L


Read the passage carefully and answer the question

The Contract should be performed by the promisor himself. However, in certain cases, it can also be performed by his agents or legal representatives. It all depends upon the intention of the parties. Normally a contract can be performed by the following persons. 

  1. Promisor himself: If from the nature of the contract it appears that it was the intention of the parties that the promise should be performed by the promisor himself, such promise must be performed by the promisor. This usually applies to contracts involving personal skill, task, or artwork. 
  2. Promisor or his Agent: Where the contract does not involve the personal skill of the promisor, the contract could be performed by the promisor himself or by any competent person employed by him for the purpose, 
  3. Legal Representatives: The contracts which do not involve any personal skill or taste, may be performed by his legal representative after the death of the promisor.
  4. Third Person: In some cases, a contract may be performed by a third person provided the promisee accepts the arrangement. According to Section 41 of the Indian Contract Act, once the promisee accepts the performance from a third person, he cannot compel the promisor to perform the contract again. 
  5. Performance of Joint Promises: According to section 42 of the Indian Contract Act, when two or more persons have made a joint promise, the joint promisors must fulfill the promise jointly during their lifetime. And if any one of them dies, then his legal representatives and survivors must jointly fulfill the promise. 

Section 43 of the Indian Contract Act further provides that unless a contrary intention appears from the contract, each joint promisor may compel every other joint promisor to contribute equally to the performance of the promise. If any joint promisor makes a default in such contribution, the remaining joint promisors must bear the loss arising from such default in equal shares.

Question:

Rohan has agreed to manage the catering services during the marriage of Sohan’s son Ramu. On the day of marriage, Rohan felt ill and sent his manager to the management of catering services. Ramu happily gets married to Tina and people appreciated the food and decoration of the event. When Rohan asked Sohan for the remaining amount, he denied it because Rohan himself had not managed so it is a breach. Decide.

 

Option: 1

Rohan is not entitled to get the remaining amount due to a breach of contract.


Option: 2

Rohan is entitled to sue Sohan for the remaining amount.


Option: 3

Rohan is entitled to sue Ramu because it was his marriage.


Option: 4

Instead of Rohan, his manager can only sue Sohan for the breach.


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

Natural justice is another name for common sense justice rules of natural justice are not in codified form these principles are embedded or ingrained or inbuilt in the conscience of human beings. It supplies the omission made in codified law and helps in the administration of justice. Natural justice is not only confined to ‘fairness’ it will take many shades and colours based on the context. Thus natural justice apart from ‘fairness’ also implies reasonableness, equity and equality. They are neither cast in a rigid mould nor can they be put in a legal straitjacket. These principles written by nature in the heart of mankind, they are immutable, inviolable, and inalienable.

It is true that the concept of natural justice is not very clear and, therefore, it is not possible to define it; yet the principles of natural justice are accepted and enforced. In the case of Ridge V. Baldwin Court observed that “in modern times have sometimes been expressed to the effect that natural justice is as vague as to be practically meaningless. But I would regard these as tainted by the perennial fallacy that because something cannot be cut and dried or nicely weighed or measured therefore it does not exist”. The term natural justice signifies fundamental rules of judicial procedure and fair play in action. According to Lord Widgery “the principles of natural justice were those fundamental rules; the breach will prevent justice from being seen to be done”. Earliest expression of ‘natural justice’ could be found in the philosophical expression of Roman Jurist (jus natural) and signified rules and principles for the conduct of man which were independent of enacted law or customs and could be discovered by the rational intelligence of man and would grow out of and conform to his nature.

The rule against bias that surfaced in 1610 in Dr Bonham's Casewhere Chief Justice Coke went so far as to say that the Court could declare an Act of Parliament void if it made a man as judge in his own cause, or otherwise ‘against common right and reason’. This was one of his grounds for disallowing the claim of the College of Physicians to fine and imprison Doctor Bonham, a Doctor of Physics of Cambridge University, for practising in the city of London without the licence of College of Physicians. The statute under which the College acted provided that fines should go half to the King half to the College so that the College had a financial interest in its own judgement and was judged in its own cause.

Question:

X is a student of a college and his father Y is a professor in the same college. In one instance, X is caught to be involved in unparliamentary activities inside the college campus. The enquiry committee is set up and Y is appointed as the head of the committee. Decide.

Option: 1

Y is a professor of the same college hence he can become a member of the enquiry committee


Option: 2

Y is X’s father hence he should not be a part of the enquiry committee


Option: 3

Y can be a part of the enquiry committee but cannot be its head


Option: 4

There is no rule that prevents the appointment of Y until he fulfils his function diligently


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

Natural justice is another name for common sense justice rules of natural justice are not in codified form these principles are embedded or ingrained or inbuilt in the conscience of human beings. It supplies the omission made in codified law and helps in the administration of justice. Natural justice is not only confined to ‘fairness’ it will take many shades and colours based on the context. Thus natural justice apart from ‘fairness’ also implies reasonableness, equity and equality. They are neither cast in a rigid mould nor can they be put in a legal straitjacket. These principles written by nature in the heart of mankind, they are immutable, inviolable, and inalienable.

It is true that the concept of natural justice is not very clear and, therefore, it is not possible to define it; yet the principles of natural justice are accepted and enforced. In the case of Ridge V. Baldwin Court observed that “in modern times have sometimes been expressed to the effect that natural justice is as vague as to be practically meaningless. But I would regard these as tainted by the perennial fallacy that because something cannot be cut and dried or nicely weighed or measured therefore it does not exist”. The term natural justice signifies fundamental rules of judicial procedure and fair play in action. According to Lord Widgery “the principles of natural justice were those fundamental rules; the breach will prevent justice from being seen to be done”. Earliest expression of ‘natural justice’ could be found in the philosophical expression of Roman Jurist (jus natural) and signified rules and principles for the conduct of man which were independent of enacted law or customs and could be discovered by the rational intelligence of man and would grow out of and conform to his nature.

The rule against bias that surfaced in 1610 in Dr Bonham's Casewhere Chief Justice Coke went so far as to say that the Court could declare an Act of Parliament void if it made a man as judge in his own cause, or otherwise ‘against common right and reason’. This was one of his grounds for disallowing the claim of the College of Physicians to fine and imprison Doctor Bonham, a Doctor of Physics of Cambridge University, for practising in the city of London without the licence of College of Physicians. The statute under which the College acted provided that fines should go half to the King half to the College so that the College had a financial interest in its own judgement and was judged in its own cause.

Question:

Mr X is an employee of a corporate office. His wife Y is a judge. In one instance, X is found to be involved in a money laundering case at his office. The office now files a suit and Y is appointed as the judge for this case. Decide.

Option: 1

Y is a judge by herself, hence can be appointed to adjudicate this case


Option: 2

Y is can be appointed as a judge only if she fulfils her responsibilities without any bias


Option: 3

Y can adjudicate the case and if the company finds the penalty to be insufficient then they can appeal against it


Option: 4

Y cannot be the judge in this case ab initio


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

Natural justice is another name for common sense justice rules of natural justice are not in codified form these principles are embedded or ingrained or inbuilt in the conscience of human beings. It supplies the omission made in codified law and helps in the administration of justice. Natural justice is not only confined to ‘fairness’ it will take many shades and colours based on the context. Thus natural justice apart from ‘fairness’ also implies reasonableness, equity and equality. They are neither cast in a rigid mould nor can they be put in a legal straitjacket. These principles written by nature in the heart of mankind, they are immutable, inviolable, and inalienable.

It is true that the concept of natural justice is not very clear and, therefore, it is not possible to define it; yet the principles of natural justice are accepted and enforced. In the case of Ridge V. Baldwin Court observed that “in modern times have sometimes been expressed to the effect that natural justice is as vague as to be practically meaningless. But I would regard these as tainted by the perennial fallacy that because something cannot be cut and dried or nicely weighed or measured therefore it does not exist”. The term natural justice signifies fundamental rules of judicial procedure and fair play in action. According to Lord Widgery “the principles of natural justice were those fundamental rules; the breach will prevent justice from being seen to be done”. Earliest expression of ‘natural justice’ could be found in the philosophical expression of Roman Jurist (jus natural) and signified rules and principles for the conduct of man which were independent of enacted law or customs and could be discovered by the rational intelligence of man and would grow out of and conform to his nature.

The rule against bias that surfaced in 1610 in Dr Bonham's Casewhere Chief Justice Coke went so far as to say that the Court could declare an Act of Parliament void if it made a man as judge in his own cause, or otherwise ‘against common right and reason’. This was one of his grounds for disallowing the claim of the College of Physicians to fine and imprison Doctor Bonham, a Doctor of Physics of Cambridge University, for practising in the city of London without the licence of College of Physicians. The statute under which the College acted provided that fines should go half to the King half to the College so that the College had a financial interest in its own judgement and was judged in its own cause.

Question:

X was a renowned cricketer in the 1980s. His son Y is a struggling cricketer who has been trying to get into the national team for many years. In the year 2020, X is appointed as a member of the selection committee. In the match which is supposed to decide the final team of the nation, Y scores a century and Z scores 65 runs. However, Z is selected to represent India and Y is not. Y now appeals against the decision, the main ground being the presence of X in the committee. Decide.

Option: 1

The appeal will stand as Y scored a century yet Z was selected after scoring 65 runs


Option: 2

The appeal will be quashed since X’s presence should have benefitted Y, but it didn’t, hence the rejection of Y is valid


Option: 3

The appeal will stand as X’s presence is a factor of bias


Option: 4

The appeal will be quashed since X was a renowned cricketer


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

Natural justice is another name for common sense justice rules of natural justice are not in codified form these principles are embedded or ingrained or inbuilt in the conscience of human beings. It supplies the omission made in codified law and helps in the administration of justice. Natural justice is not only confined to ‘fairness’ it will take many shades and colours based on the context. Thus natural justice apart from ‘fairness’ also implies reasonableness, equity and equality. They are neither cast in a rigid mould nor can they be put in a legal straitjacket. These principles written by nature in the heart of mankind, they are immutable, inviolable, and inalienable.

It is true that the concept of natural justice is not very clear and, therefore, it is not possible to define it; yet the principles of natural justice are accepted and enforced. In the case of Ridge V. Baldwin Court observed that “in modern times have sometimes been expressed to the effect that natural justice is as vague as to be practically meaningless. But I would regard these as tainted by the perennial fallacy that because something cannot be cut and dried or nicely weighed or measured therefore it does not exist”. The term natural justice signifies fundamental rules of judicial procedure and fair play in action. According to Lord Widgery “the principles of natural justice were those fundamental rules; the breach will prevent justice from being seen to be done”. Earliest expression of ‘natural justice’ could be found in the philosophical expression of Roman Jurist (jus natural) and signified rules and principles for the conduct of man which were independent of enacted law or customs and could be discovered by the rational intelligence of man and would grow out of and conform to his nature.

The rule against bias that surfaced in 1610 in Dr Bonham's Casewhere Chief Justice Coke went so far as to say that the Court could declare an Act of Parliament void if it made a man as judge in his own cause, or otherwise ‘against common right and reason’. This was one of his grounds for disallowing the claim of the College of Physicians to fine and imprison Doctor Bonham, a Doctor of Physics of Cambridge University, for practising in the city of London without the licence of College of Physicians. The statute under which the College acted provided that fines should go half to the King half to the College so that the College had a financial interest in its own judgement and was judged in its own cause.

Question:

X is a married judge who is well known for his honesty in the entire city. He has a son Y. One fine day Y gets kidnapped and the kidnapper demands a sum of 20 lakhs from X. However, the kidnapper is caught by the police. X is now appointed as the judge for the hearing of the kidnapper. Decide.

Option: 1

X can be the judge since he can decide the punishment better as he was the sufferer


Option: 2

X cannot be the judge since there is a possibility that he will be biased while delivering the judgement


Option: 3

X can be the judge since he is renowned for his honesty and fulfil his duties


Option: 4

X can be the judge but his statement can be appealed against if delivered with bias


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

Natural justice is another name for common sense justice rules of natural justice are not in codified form these principles are embedded or ingrained or inbuilt in the conscience of human beings. It supplies the omission made in codified law and helps in the administration of justice. Natural justice is not only confined to ‘fairness’ it will take many shades and colours based on the context. Thus natural justice apart from ‘fairness’ also implies reasonableness, equity and equality. They are neither cast in a rigid mould nor can they be put in a legal straitjacket. These principles written by nature in the heart of mankind, they are immutable, inviolable, and inalienable.

It is true that the concept of natural justice is not very clear and, therefore, it is not possible to define it; yet the principles of natural justice are accepted and enforced. In the case of Ridge V. Baldwin Court observed that “in modern times have sometimes been expressed to the effect that natural justice is as vague as to be practically meaningless. But I would regard these as tainted by the perennial fallacy that because something cannot be cut and dried or nicely weighed or measured therefore it does not exist”. The term natural justice signifies fundamental rules of judicial procedure and fair play in action. According to Lord Widgery “the principles of natural justice were those fundamental rules; the breach will prevent justice from being seen to be done”. Earliest expression of ‘natural justice’ could be found in the philosophical expression of Roman Jurist (jus natural) and signified rules and principles for the conduct of man which were independent of enacted law or customs and could be discovered by the rational intelligence of man and would grow out of and conform to his nature.

The rule against bias that surfaced in 1610 in Dr Bonham's Casewhere Chief Justice Coke went so far as to say that the Court could declare an Act of Parliament void if it made a man as judge in his own cause, or otherwise ‘against common right and reason’. This was one of his grounds for disallowing the claim of the College of Physicians to fine and imprison Doctor Bonham, a Doctor of Physics of Cambridge University, for practising in the city of London without the licence of College of Physicians. The statute under which the College acted provided that fines should go half to the King half to the College so that the College had a financial interest in its own judgement and was judged in its own cause.

Question:

X and Y have been married for five years. X is a judge and Y is a doctor. X is pretty much unhappy with his married life so he wants to divorce Y. Y refuses to agree to a divorce by mutual consent hence X files a suit against Y. Decide.

Option: 1

X cannot file a suit since he is a judge


Option: 2

X can file a suit against Y in legal capacity but not as a judge


Option: 3

X cannot file a divorce suit against Y since there is no valid ground for divorce


Option: 4

X can proceed with mutual consent but not contested divorce


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

In the case of M/S Halonex Limited, 59-A Noida vs State of U.P., it was held that “In reply to the aforesaid submission, learned counsel for opposite party no.2 submitted that the case of the applicants that no amount is due from their side to the complainant is a matter of defence which cannot be considered at this stage. It has been submitted that the term 'entrustment' as used in Section 405 IPC has been given a wider interpretation. It has been submitted that the goods returned by the complainant to the Company for replacement or for reimbursement would be deemed to have been entrusted to the Company and as the applicants 2 & 3 were handling its affair they become responsible. To buttress the said submission, the learned counsel for the complainant drew the attention of the Court to a decision of the Apex Court in the case of Ram Narayan Popli Vs. Central Bureau of Investigation: (2003) 3 SCC 641, wherein it was observed that: "the term "entrustment" is not necessarily a term of law. It may have different implications in different contexts. In its most general signification all it imports is the handing over possession for some purpose which may not imply the conferring of any proprietary right at all." Attention was also drawn to an observation made in the judgment of the aforesaid case, where it was observed that: "to establish the charge of criminal breach of trust, the prosecution is not obliged to prove the precise mode of conversion, misappropriation or misapplication by the accused of the property entrusted to him or over which he has dominion. The principal ingredient of the offence being dishonest misappropriation or conversion which may not ordinarily be a matter of direct proof, entrustment of property and failure in breach of an obligation to account for the property entrusted if proved, may, in the light of other circumstances, justifiably lead to an inference of dishonest misappropriation or conversion”.

Question:

X tracks down an expensive necklace on the road. Not knowing to whom it belongs. X sells it promptly to a jeweller without attempting to find the owner or submitting the necklace to the authorities. Decide the liability of X.

Option: 1

Extortion


Option: 2

Criminal breach of trust


Option: 3

Theft


Option: 4

Criminal misappropriation of Property


Lawyer

A lawyer is a professional who practises law. An Individual in the lawyer career path defends his or her client's cases and makes arguments on his or her behalf in both criminal and civil proceedings. A lawyer may advise and assist clients on how they should handle their legal issues. An individual as a career in law in India is considered one of the most sought-after careers.

A lawyer's job requires inhibiting skills. It involves practical applications of abstract legal theories and knowledge to solve specialised individual problems or to facilitate the interests of those who hire a lawyer to perform legal services. Here, in this article, we will discuss how to become a lawyer after 10th, is lawyer a good career in India, and how to become a lawyer in India.

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