Careers360 Logo
Free CLAT Practice Test - Day 1

Free CLAT Practice Test - Day 1

Edited By Ritika Jonwal | Updated on Sep 05, 2024 10:01 AM IST | #CLAT

The Common Law Admission Test is CLAT in its entirety. For admission to 22 national law universities in India, the government administers the centralised national entrance exam or CLAT. Preparing for the Common Law Admission Test (CLAT) can be difficult, requiring hard effort and strategic study. Daily practice with multiple-choice questions is an excellent approach to improving your preparedness. These daily questions will help you better comprehend crucial concepts and become familiar with the format and sorts of questions on the test. Making daily MCQs part of your study strategy allows you to track your progress, identify areas for improvement, and develop confidence for the test. In this post, we will look at how daily MCQs may help you prepare for the CLAT and enhance your overall performance.

Download Free PDF: Day 1- Solutions

CLAT 2025 Passage Of The Day - English Section

Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only. Certain words in the passage have been written in bold to help the reader understand the questions.

Legalised bribery is what some drug reps call their employers' marketing. Despite much publicised recent efforts by drug-industry groups to curb the most egregious ministrations to doctors by reps—curiously, more often than not, pretty women—firms still spend billions trying to walk a fine line between product promotion and undue influence. Yet some of the oldest tricks in the marketing book do not seem to pay off as they used to—which is bad news indeed for the drug firms.

Selling prescription drugs is a curious business. Unlike other consumer-goods makers, who pitch their wares directly to the consumer, drug companies lavish most of their marketing money on doctors—medical middlemen—to persuade them to prescribe their products to consumers (i.e., patients). The traditional focus of drug marketing is the personal "detail", in which a sales rep sits down with a doctor to discuss the merits of a drug and often hands over free samples. But these details are under growing scrutiny. Last week, police in Verona raided the offices of GlaxoSmithKline; now, 40 staff and 30 doctors are under investigation for comparaggio—prescribing drugs in exchange for gifts, such as computers and lavish trips. Strictly speaking, it is "unethical" for reps to take doctors to baseball games or buy them gifts. But, as one former rep confesses, when a doctor said he would ask a rep for a Palm Pilot, "I offered to buy it, as I knew if I didn't, a competitor would." Her firm helped to "hide" the purchase. Drug firms have happily taken doctors to spas and golf courses for "consulting trips".

Drug firms are starting to use more sophisticated techniques than a short skirt and a smile to peddle their pills. In America, they send their sales reps into battle with sophisticated tools, such as Palm Pilots with fancy software and rigorous training, to make their pitches. In America, detailed prescribing data can be bought from specialist research firms, which some drug firms are now beefing up with detailed information about why doctors prescribe as they do. For example, Eli Lilly uses the call centres it runs for doctors who have questions about products to make a few inquiries of its own and to build detailed profiles of doctors. Drug firms are having to work harder to build relationships with doctors, repositioning themselves as providers of medical education, without this coming across as a bribe. Firms are also focusing more on specialists who influence medical practice, using highly trained "medical science liaisons" to engage such doctors early in a drug's development so that they can spread the good word to their colleagues.

Q1. Which of the following options correctly completes the given statement below?

Marketing drugs to doctors is all about-

(a) Building brand loyalty with famous doctors.

(b) Pushing up for sales and profits irrespective of the approach.

(c) Selling generic drugs in the face of stiff competition.

(d) Marketing in an innovative way to build a brand image with doctors.

Q2. Which of the following can be inferred from the second paragraph of the passage?

(a) The drug business is no different from other businesses.

(b) Drug marketing is gradually adopting immoral actions to defeat competitors.

(c) The drug business is a medium of interaction between the sales representative and the doctor.

(d) The doctors prescribe the drugs to their patients, which they think are good for them.

Q3. The expression “walk a fine line” as used in the passage means-

(a) To maintain a balance between the promotion of a product and its use.

(b) To carry out a discussion between the sales representative and the doctor.

(c) To promote the product of a drug firm.

(d) To use new tricks to sell a product.

Q4. What can be a suitable title for the passage?

(a) Intrusive marketing strategies in the field of medicine

(b) The immoral code of conduct of doctors is pushing for pills

(c) Unethical collusion of doctors with pharma companies

(d) Aggressive marketing strategy of bribing doctors

Q5. Which of the following is not the meaning of the word ‘egregious’ as used in the passage?

(a) Appalling

(b) Horrific

(c) Marvellous

(d) Grievous

Section - Current Affairs, including General Knowledge

Read the following passage and answer the questions

Announcing a host of measures as part of the new Foreign Trade Policy (FTP) 2023 onwards unveiled, Santosh Sarangi, DG, DGFT said India’s economy remains in a relatively sweet spot amid global turmoil with the GDP growth being the highest among comparable economies. “The new Foreign Trade Policy shall provide policy continuity and a responsive policy framework for promoting India's Exports of Goods and Services,” DGFT stated in its notification earlier. Saying how it will be a continuous process, Sarangi said there is no end to the new FTP and it would be updated as per the needs of the trade. "This FTP will be dynamic and responsive to ever-changing trade scenarios. As and when we get feedback from you, we will keep changing this document. The window for updating this is available on a real-time basis," he said. Sarangi added that fee reduction is being ensured for MSMEs. “Almost 50-60% of the beneficiaries are MSMEs. From paying about Rs 1 lakh to their licenses earlier, now they would pay only Rs 5000,” he said. The country is likely to end this financial year with total exports of 760 dollar billion compared to 676 billion dollar in 2021-22. The Director General said that the ambition of reaching \$2 trillion in exports by 2030 will be continuously followed up. "We are now revising the export performance threshold. A five-star export house would now be eligible to be recognised as five-star with a threshold of 800 million of exports instead of $2 trillion earlier," he said. The government also declared four new towns as towns of export excellence- Faridabad, Varanasi, Moradabad and Mirzapur. This will be in addition to 39 towns which are already approved. Union Commerce Minister (1) said that flexibility in foreign trade policy will help grow India's export potential. "Government will engage in massive trade outreach across the globe in terms of sectors and nations in the coming months," he said. He mentioned that some of the changes they have made are that the e-certificate of origin has been made completely online. "To supplement our FTA negotiation efforts, we are issuing both preferential and non-preferential certificates of origins through DGFT e-platform and more than 18 lahks certificated issued using this platform," he said. On March 31, 2020, the government extended the FTP 2015-20 for one year till March 31, 2021, amid the coronavirus outbreak and the consequent lockdowns. It saw many such extensions due to the deadly virus aftermath. The last extension was given in September 2022 till March 31, 2023.
Q6. Who said that flexibility in foreign trade policy will help grow India's export potential and that the Government will engage in massive trade outreach across the globe in terms of sectors and nations in the coming months?

(a) Smt Nirmala Sitharaman

(b) Shri Rajnath Singh

(c) Shri Narendra Singh Tomar

(d) Shri Piyush Goyal

Q7. The Foreign Trade Policy (FTP) 2023 is notified by the Central Government, in the exercise of powers conferred under _______ of the Foreign Trade (Development & Regulation) Act, 1992.

(a) Section 7

(b) Section 5

(c) Section 10

(d) Section 8

Q8. Which country has pursued a new foreign policy strategy that aimed at strengthening its relationships with countries like India and China, while promoting greater cooperation and stability throughout Eurasia?

(a) China

(b) Australia

(c) Russia

(d) Canada

Q9. Where is the headquarters of the World Trade Organisation located?

(a) Hague

(b) Geneva

(c) Zurich

(d) Sweden

Q10. Who was the first Chairman and Managing Director of EXIM Bank of India?

(a) Senthil Nathan

(b) Subramanian

(c) N. Ramesh

(d) R. C. Shah

Section - Legal Reasoning

Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Marriage, whether considered as a sacrament or a contract, gives rise to a status. It confers a status of husband and wife on parties of the marriage, and a status of legitimacy on the children of the marriage. For a valid marriage, in most systems of law, two conditions are necessary: (a) parties must have the capacity to marry, and (b) they must undergo the necessary ceremonies and rites of marriage. In some ancient communities, both requirements were nominal. Performance of certain shastric ceremonies is still necessary for a valid Hindu marriage. If the parties to the marriage have undergone the necessary ceremonies of marriage, they cannot be heard to say that they merely intended to be a man and a concubine. If requisite ceremonies are not performed, they cannot claim to be a husband and a wife whatever might have been their intention, unless some custom is invoked under which the performance of a ceremony is not necessary, or a presumption of law exists.

From ancient times to 1955, having more than one spouse was recognized in Hindu law. However, such a practice has been abolished and monogamy has been made a rule for all persons who are governed by the principles of the Hindu law. Monogamy means that one is permitted to have only one wife or one husband at a time. The provisions of the Hindu Marriage Act make a bigamous marriage void and make it a penal offence for both Hindu males and females under the relevant provisions of the Indian Penal Code. It is not certain when the shastric limitation on marriages within certain degrees of generation came to be established. However, the Dharamshastras considered the sexual relationship with one’s mother, one’s sister, or one’s daughter, or even with one’s son’s wife as the highest sin. The prohibition of the sapinda relationship extended only to the third or fourth degree of kinship in ancient Hindu law.

Q11. Which of the following Hindu law jurists propounded the rule that a true wife must preserve her chastity as much after as before the death of her husband in Hindu law?

(a) Manu

(b) Kautilya

(c) Yajnavalkya

(d) None of the above

Q12. Which of the following is an inherent characteristic of a Hindu marriage after the commencement of the Hindu Marriage Act?

(a) That marriage is a permanent and indissoluble union

(b) That marriage is an eternal union

(c) That marriage is a holy union

(d) All of the above

Q13. Which of the following concepts was not recognized by the Hindu law of marriage?

(a) Bigamy

(b) Polygamy

(c) Polyandry

(d) All of the above

Q14. The prohibition of a Sapinda relationship in a Hindu marriage is based on which of the following rules prescribed under Hindu law?

(a) Rule of Endogamy

(b) Rule of Exogamy

(c) All of the above

(d) None of the above

Q15. Which of the following is an essential ceremony which makes a Hindu marriage complete and binding?

(a) Kanyadaan

(b) Panigrahana

(c) Saptapadi

(d) All of the above

Section - Logical Reasoning

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

As the panchayat elections draw near in West Bengal, three distinct political discourses are emerging across various platforms. The first discourse emphasizes the Trinamool Congress' expected retention of its majority, despite recent corruption and criminal charges against its leadership. This viewpoint relies on the party's large-scale cash-transfer schemes and the Chief Minister's perceived "incorruptible" public image.

The second discourse acknowledges the recent victory of the Left-Congress alliance in a by-election (although the candidate has since joined Trinamool) and local body elections. However, it dismisses their chances of bringing about significant change at the broader electoral level. This scepticism is rooted in the parties' performance in previous Assembly Elections and criticism of the Communist Party of India-Marxist (CPIM) led Left Front as being a party of "old-veterans."

The third discourse still holds hope that the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) could act as a game-changer and counter the alleged violence and corruption associated with Trinamool. However, this perspective is losing traction due to the frequent migration of political leaders between Trinamool and the BJP. Consequently, the BJP's political influence in West Bengal is currently limited.

This article aims to explore the changes in the rural economy of West Bengal over the past decade and their impact on the political landscape for both Trinamool and the Left. By examining these changes, a deeper understanding of the first two discourses can be achieved, moving beyond the simplistic rhetoric of "Trinamool's cash transfer worked" and "CPI(M) is old."

One notable change in rural West Bengal is the gradual process of households losing land, leading to de-peasantisation and proletarianisation. According to recent reports from the National Family Health Survey, over 65.2% of rural families in West Bengal no longer own agricultural land. The majority of rural households rely on wage income, with only a minor percentage engaged in self-employment in agriculture.

The declining income from crop and livestock cultivation, combined with rising cultivation costs and small landholdings, has created a crisis in rural income. The average monthly crop income for a typical agricultural household in West Bengal is significantly lower than the national average. This economic hardship suggests the possibility of Left-led peasant movements, but consolidation has been limited. Many self-employed persons in agriculture, who form the base of peasant organizations, are now above 45 years of age. Additionally, wage income has become the primary source of income for the semi-proletariat section, further complicating the class dynamics.

Regarding employment sources in rural Bengal, there has been a decline in manufacturing jobs, posing challenges for trade unions to address class issues. The majority of rural working women in West Bengal are engaged in household care and reproductive labour, providing an opportunity for Trinamool to attract female voters through cash transfer schemes. The construction and services sectors have become the main sources of employment but with different employment conditions. Construction workers are predominantly casual wage workers, while a significant portion of service sector workers are self-employed due to economic distress.

Trinamool has cultivated a nexus of corruption, syndicate, and crime, which has faced scrutiny and criticism. This process gained momentum in the party's second term, with a newly affluent class involved in real estate and local businesses assuming key organizational roles. Recent corruption charges against Trinamool leaders exemplify this class's extraction of public resources through scams and corruption. The inclusion of this neo-rich business class is evident in the asset declaration data of Trinamool candidates, who possess significantly higher average assets compared to rural households.

In conclusion, the changing economic landscape in rural West Bengal has given rise to shifting political formations. The declining peasantry and a substantial pool of casual wage workers potentially align with the Left's political agenda. The recent protests by student and youth organizations, along with CPIM members, highlight issues of unemployment and corruption associated with the ruling Trinamool party. However, an important underlying class question revolves around the rise of the neo-rural rich, who contribute to Trinamool's political and managerial functions. The extent to which the current student and youth resistance can challenge the influence of this class in the upcoming panchayat elections remains to be seen.

Q16. Which of the following statements supports the argument that the declining income in rural West Bengal has led to a possibility of Left-led peasant movements?

(a) The majority of rural households in West Bengal rely on wage income.

(b) The average monthly crop income for agricultural households in West Bengal is lower than the national average.

(c) Many self-employed persons in agriculture are now above 45 years of age.

(d) The construction and services sectors have become the main sources of employment in rural Bengal.

Q17. Which of the following changes would weaken the argument that the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) could act as a game-changer in the upcoming West Bengal panchayat elections?

(a) The recent victory of the Left-Congress alliance in a by-election and local body elections.

(b) The frequent migration of political leaders between Trinamool and the BJP.

(c) The inclusion of a neo-rich business class in Trinamool's organizational roles.

(d) The declining income from crop and livestock cultivation in rural West Bengal.

Q18. What is the central idea/theme of the passage, and what is its result?

(a) Central idea/theme: The changing economic landscape in rural West Bengal.

Result: Shifting political formations and the possibility of Left-led peasant movements.

(b) Central idea/theme: The expected retention of Trinamool Congress' majority in the panchayat elections.

Result: Increased support for Trinamool through their cash-transfer schemes.

(c) Central idea/theme: The decline in manufacturing jobs in rural Bengal.

Result: Challenges for trade unions to address class issues.

(d) Central idea/theme: The rise of the neo-rural rich in Trinamool's political and managerial functions.

Result: Scrutiny and criticism of corruption and extraction of public resources.

Q19. Based on the passage, which of the following can be inferred about the Left-Congress alliance?

(a) The Left-Congress alliance has been successful in previous Assembly Elections.

(b) The Left-Congress alliance has recently gained victory in a by-election and local body elections.

(c) The Left-Congress alliance is composed of "old veterans" from the Communist Party of India-Marxist (CPIM).

(d) The Left-Congress alliance is expected to bring significant change at the broader electoral level.

Q20. Based on the passage, what can be inferred about the writer's point of view regarding the Trinamool Congress?

(a) The writer is critical of the Trinamool Congress' large-scale cash-transfer schemes.

(b) The writer believes that the Trinamool Congress will lose its majority in the upcoming panchayat elections.

(c) The writer supports the Trinamool Congress' efforts to counter violence and corruption.

(d) The writer is concerned about the influence of the neo-rural rich in Trinamool's political and managerial functions.

Section - Quantitative Techniques

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the multiple-choice questions that follow Information:

A recent survey was conducted among 500 students to find out their favourite sports. The results were quite fascinating! A majority of the students, 70% to be exact, reported that they enjoyed playing cricket. That’s a total of 350 students who love the sport!

Football was also a popular choice among the students, with 40% of 200 students reporting that they liked to play. It seems like these two sports have quite a following among the students surveyed.

Interestingly, there was some overlap between the two groups. 20% of the students, or 100 students, said they enjoyed playing both cricket and football. It’s great to see that these students have diverse interests and enjoy participating in multiple sports.

Overall, the survey results show that cricket and football are both popular sports among the students surveyed. It would be interesting to see if these trends hold true for other student populations as well.

Q21. What percentage of students surveyed liked to play neither cricket nor football?

(a) 10%

(b) 15%

(c) 20%

(d) 30%

Q22. How many students liked to play football only?

(a) 60

(b) 80

(c) 100

(d) 120

Q23. If the total number of students surveyed is 800 instead of 500, what would be the number of students who like to play both cricket and football?

(a) 32

(b) 100

(c) 120

(d) 160

Q24. What is the percentage of students who like to play at least one of the two sports?

(a) 80%

(b) 85%

(c) 70%

(d) 90%

Q25. In a survey conducted among 500 students, it was found that 70% of them liked to play cricket, 40% of them liked to play football, and 20% of them liked to play both cricket and football. If the number of students who liked to play neither cricket nor football is equal to the number of students who liked to play both sports, what is the percentage of students who liked to play only cricket or only football?

(a) 80%

(b) 85%

(c) 70%

(d) 90%

Conclusion

Daily MCQs in your CLAT preparation is more than simply a study tip; it's an excellent approach to understand the test truly. Regularly practising these questions can help you think more clearly, organise your time more effectively, and develop a solid foundation of knowledge in a variety of disciplines. As you continue to study with daily MCQs, you will see that they improve your understanding of the content and boost your confidence. Continue practising consistently and following a wise study strategy, and you'll be on pace to perform well on the CLAT.

The solution PDF will be available at 6:00 PM. The solution PDF link will be included in the Daily Free CLAT Practice Test article.

Happy learning!

Articles

Certifications By Top Providers

Explore Top Universities Across Globe

Questions related to CLAT

Have a question related to CLAT ?

Hello aspirant,

On July 15, 2025, the Consortium of National Law Universities (NLUs) launched the CLAT 2025 Registration. Until October 15, 2024, candidates may complete the CLAT Application Form 2025. All qualified applicants may complete the CLAT Application Form 2025 by going to consortiumofnlus.ac.in, the official website. Candidates must pay the CLAT 2025 application costs as specified in the CLAT Exam Notification. Important dates for CLAT Registration 2025 were outlined in the CLAT 2025 Notification, which was made public on July 7.

For complete information, please visit the following link:

https://law.careers360.com/exams/clat

Thank you

Hope it helps you.

VIT Chennai offers 5 years integrated programme of law LLB for the admission Merit list is prepared based on performance in 10+2 and valid CLAT/LSAT score.no seperate exam is conducted for admission.you need to apply with your CLAT score and 12th marksheet.

Clat exam is near so try to get good score if you didn't perform well in your academics.

Good luck and stay focused.

Hello aspirant,

The Common Law Admission Test (CLAT) is open to engineering students. Students who want to study law in National Law Universities (NLUs) in India for undergraduate (BA LLB) and graduate (LLM) degrees should primarily take the CLAT.

To know the complete eligibility criteria, please visit the following link:

https://law.careers360.com/articles/clat-eligibility-criteria

Thank you

Hello aspirant,

For admission to the nation's best NLUs, the Consortium of NLUs will administer the CLAT Exam. The CLAT Exam Dates have been issued by the Consortium. The date of the CLAT Exam 2025 is set for December 1, 2024, as per the CLAT Notification 2025.  The consortium has also made available the CLAT 2025 eligibility requirements for undergraduate and graduate courses in addition to the official notification. On July 15, 2024, the CLAT 2025 application process opened. On or before October 15, 2024, candidates interested in studying law at any of the nation's NLUs may do so by completing the CLAT Application Form.

Whoever fulfills the eligibility criteria can give CLAT exam.

For more information please visit the following link link:

https://law.careers360.com/articles/clat-eligibility-criteria

Thank you

Hello aspirant,

As a private candidate, you're not affiliated with any particular school. Therefore, "Private Candidate" is the appropriate entry.

I hope this information helps you.

Passage 1
Read the passage below and answer the following question.
Cheating is considered a criminal offence under the Indian Penal Code. It is done to gain profit or advantage from another person by using some deceitful means. The person who deceives another knows for the fact that it would place the other person in an unfair situation. Cheating as an offence can be made punishable under Section 420 of the IPC. Scope of Section 415 Cheating is defined under Section 415 of the Indian Penal Code as whoever fraudulently or dishonestly deceives a person to induce that person to deliver a property to any person or to consent to retain any property. If a person intentionally induces a person to do or omit to do any act which he would not have done if he was not deceived to do so and the act has caused harm to that person in body, mind, reputation, or property, then the person who fraudulently, dishonestly or intentionally induced the other person is said to cheat. Any dishonest concealment of facts that can deceive a person to do an act that he would not have done otherwise is also cheating within the meaning of this section. Essential Ingredients of Cheating requires · deception of any person. Fraudulently or dishonestly inducing that person to deliver any property to any person or to consent that any person shall retain any property; or · intentionally inducing a person to do or omit to do anything which he would not do or omit if he were not so deceived, and the act or omission causes or is likely to cause damage or harm to that person in body, mind, reputation or property.
Deceit– a tort arising from an untrue or false statement of facts which are made by a person, recklessly or knowingly, with an intention that it shall be acted upon by the other person, who would suffer damages as a result. 
Fraud – a false or untrue representation of the fact, that is made with the knowledge of its falsity or without the belief in its truth or a reckless statement that may or may not be true, with an intention to induce a person or individual to act independent of it with the result that the person acts on it and suffers damages and harm. In other words, it is a wrong act or criminal deception with an intention to result in financial or personal gain.
Question - 1 
D went to a moneylender, Z, for the loan. D intentionally pledges the gold article with Z taking the loan. D knows that the article is not made of gold. After a few days, D leaves the village. Decide.

 

Option: 1 None

Option: 2 None

Option: 3 None

Option: 4 None

Read the passage carefully and answer the question

The Contract should be performed by the promisor himself. However, in certain cases, it can also be performed by his agents or legal representatives. It all depends upon the intention of the parties. Normally a contract can be performed by the following persons. 

  1. Promisor himself: If from the nature of the contract it appears that it was the intention of the parties that the promise should be performed by the promisor himself, such promise must be performed by the promisor. This usually applies to contracts involving personal skill, task, or artwork. 
  2. Promisor or his Agent: Where the contract does not involve the personal skill of the promisor, the contract could be performed by the promisor himself or by any competent person employed by him for the purpose, 
  3. Legal Representatives: The contracts which do not involve any personal skill or taste, may be performed by his legal representative after the death of the promisor.
  4. Third Person: In some cases, a contract may be performed by a third person provided the promisee accepts the arrangement. According to Section 41 of the Indian Contract Act, once the promisee accepts the performance from a third person, he cannot compel the promisor to perform the contract again. 
  5. Performance of Joint Promises: According to section 42 of the Indian Contract Act, when two or more persons have made a joint promise, the joint promisors must fulfill the promise jointly during their lifetime. And if any one of them dies, then his legal representatives and survivors must jointly fulfill the promise. 

Section 43 of the Indian Contract Act further provides that unless a contrary intention appears from the contract, each joint promisor may compel every other joint promisor to contribute equally to the performance of the promise. If any joint promisor makes a default in such contribution, the remaining joint promisors must bear the loss arising from such default in equal shares.

Question:

Aman received a box of chocolates from Basant and promised to pay Rupees 5000. Later on, A becomes bankrupt. Chetan who is a friend of Aman pays rupees 1000 to Besant on behalf of Aman. Aman is not aware of such a transaction. In civil court, insolvency proceedings have started against Aman. Meanwhile, Basant has also applied for a recovery of 5000 rupees. Decide.

Option: 1

Basant is entitled to recover the amount of 5000 from Aman.


Option: 2

Basant is entitled to recover the amount of 4000 from Aman.


Option: 3

Chetan is entitled to recover the amount of 1000 from Basant.


Option: 4

Basant cannot recover any amount from Aman as he has become insolvent.


Read the passage carefully and answer the question

The Contract should be performed by the promisor himself. However, in certain cases, it can also be performed by his agents or legal representatives. It all depends upon the intention of the parties. Normally a contract can be performed by the following persons. 

  1. Promisor himself: If from the nature of the contract it appears that it was the intention of the parties that the promise should be performed by the promisor himself, such promise must be performed by the promisor. This usually applies to contracts involving personal skill, task, or artwork. 
  2. Promisor or his Agent: Where the contract does not involve the personal skill of the promisor, the contract could be performed by the promisor himself or by any competent person employed by him for the purpose, 
  3. Legal Representatives: The contracts which do not involve any personal skill or taste, may be performed by his legal representative after the death of the promisor.
  4. Third Person: In some cases, a contract may be performed by a third person provided the promisee accepts the arrangement. According to Section 41 of the Indian Contract Act, once the promisee accepts the performance from a third person, he cannot compel the promisor to perform the contract again. 
  5. Performance of Joint Promises: According to section 42 of the Indian Contract Act, when two or more persons have made a joint promise, the joint promisors must fulfill the promise jointly during their lifetime. And if any one of them dies, then his legal representatives and survivors must jointly fulfill the promise. 

Section 43 of the Indian Contract Act further provides that unless a contrary intention appears from the contract, each joint promisor may compel every other joint promisor to contribute equally to the performance of the promise. If any joint promisor makes a default in such contribution, the remaining joint promisors must bear the loss arising from such default in equal shares.

Question:

K promises to paint a picture for L on a certain day, at a certain price. K dies before the day of the contract. Decide. 

Option: 1

The contract can be enforced by K’s representative 


Option: 2

The contract can be enforced by L


Option: 3

The contract can be enforced either by K’s representation or by L 


Option: 4

The contract cannot be enforced either by K’s representative, or L


Read the passage carefully and answer the question

The Contract should be performed by the promisor himself. However, in certain cases, it can also be performed by his agents or legal representatives. It all depends upon the intention of the parties. Normally a contract can be performed by the following persons. 

  1. Promisor himself: If from the nature of the contract it appears that it was the intention of the parties that the promise should be performed by the promisor himself, such promise must be performed by the promisor. This usually applies to contracts involving personal skill, task, or artwork. 
  2. Promisor or his Agent: Where the contract does not involve the personal skill of the promisor, the contract could be performed by the promisor himself or by any competent person employed by him for the purpose, 
  3. Legal Representatives: The contracts which do not involve any personal skill or taste, may be performed by his legal representative after the death of the promisor.
  4. Third Person: In some cases, a contract may be performed by a third person provided the promisee accepts the arrangement. According to Section 41 of the Indian Contract Act, once the promisee accepts the performance from a third person, he cannot compel the promisor to perform the contract again. 
  5. Performance of Joint Promises: According to section 42 of the Indian Contract Act, when two or more persons have made a joint promise, the joint promisors must fulfill the promise jointly during their lifetime. And if any one of them dies, then his legal representatives and survivors must jointly fulfill the promise. 

Section 43 of the Indian Contract Act further provides that unless a contrary intention appears from the contract, each joint promisor may compel every other joint promisor to contribute equally to the performance of the promise. If any joint promisor makes a default in such contribution, the remaining joint promisors must bear the loss arising from such default in equal shares.

Question:

Rohan has agreed to manage the catering services during the marriage of Sohan’s son Ramu. On the day of marriage, Rohan felt ill and sent his manager to the management of catering services. Ramu happily gets married to Tina and people appreciated the food and decoration of the event. When Rohan asked Sohan for the remaining amount, he denied it because Rohan himself had not managed so it is a breach. Decide.

 

Option: 1

Rohan is not entitled to get the remaining amount due to a breach of contract.


Option: 2

Rohan is entitled to sue Sohan for the remaining amount.


Option: 3

Rohan is entitled to sue Ramu because it was his marriage.


Option: 4

Instead of Rohan, his manager can only sue Sohan for the breach.


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

Natural justice is another name for common sense justice rules of natural justice are not in codified form these principles are embedded or ingrained or inbuilt in the conscience of human beings. It supplies the omission made in codified law and helps in the administration of justice. Natural justice is not only confined to ‘fairness’ it will take many shades and colours based on the context. Thus natural justice apart from ‘fairness’ also implies reasonableness, equity and equality. They are neither cast in a rigid mould nor can they be put in a legal straitjacket. These principles written by nature in the heart of mankind, they are immutable, inviolable, and inalienable.

It is true that the concept of natural justice is not very clear and, therefore, it is not possible to define it; yet the principles of natural justice are accepted and enforced. In the case of Ridge V. Baldwin Court observed that “in modern times have sometimes been expressed to the effect that natural justice is as vague as to be practically meaningless. But I would regard these as tainted by the perennial fallacy that because something cannot be cut and dried or nicely weighed or measured therefore it does not exist”. The term natural justice signifies fundamental rules of judicial procedure and fair play in action. According to Lord Widgery “the principles of natural justice were those fundamental rules; the breach will prevent justice from being seen to be done”. Earliest expression of ‘natural justice’ could be found in the philosophical expression of Roman Jurist (jus natural) and signified rules and principles for the conduct of man which were independent of enacted law or customs and could be discovered by the rational intelligence of man and would grow out of and conform to his nature.

The rule against bias that surfaced in 1610 in Dr Bonham's Casewhere Chief Justice Coke went so far as to say that the Court could declare an Act of Parliament void if it made a man as judge in his own cause, or otherwise ‘against common right and reason’. This was one of his grounds for disallowing the claim of the College of Physicians to fine and imprison Doctor Bonham, a Doctor of Physics of Cambridge University, for practising in the city of London without the licence of College of Physicians. The statute under which the College acted provided that fines should go half to the King half to the College so that the College had a financial interest in its own judgement and was judged in its own cause.

Question:

X is a student of a college and his father Y is a professor in the same college. In one instance, X is caught to be involved in unparliamentary activities inside the college campus. The enquiry committee is set up and Y is appointed as the head of the committee. Decide.

Option: 1

Y is a professor of the same college hence he can become a member of the enquiry committee


Option: 2

Y is X’s father hence he should not be a part of the enquiry committee


Option: 3

Y can be a part of the enquiry committee but cannot be its head


Option: 4

There is no rule that prevents the appointment of Y until he fulfils his function diligently


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

Natural justice is another name for common sense justice rules of natural justice are not in codified form these principles are embedded or ingrained or inbuilt in the conscience of human beings. It supplies the omission made in codified law and helps in the administration of justice. Natural justice is not only confined to ‘fairness’ it will take many shades and colours based on the context. Thus natural justice apart from ‘fairness’ also implies reasonableness, equity and equality. They are neither cast in a rigid mould nor can they be put in a legal straitjacket. These principles written by nature in the heart of mankind, they are immutable, inviolable, and inalienable.

It is true that the concept of natural justice is not very clear and, therefore, it is not possible to define it; yet the principles of natural justice are accepted and enforced. In the case of Ridge V. Baldwin Court observed that “in modern times have sometimes been expressed to the effect that natural justice is as vague as to be practically meaningless. But I would regard these as tainted by the perennial fallacy that because something cannot be cut and dried or nicely weighed or measured therefore it does not exist”. The term natural justice signifies fundamental rules of judicial procedure and fair play in action. According to Lord Widgery “the principles of natural justice were those fundamental rules; the breach will prevent justice from being seen to be done”. Earliest expression of ‘natural justice’ could be found in the philosophical expression of Roman Jurist (jus natural) and signified rules and principles for the conduct of man which were independent of enacted law or customs and could be discovered by the rational intelligence of man and would grow out of and conform to his nature.

The rule against bias that surfaced in 1610 in Dr Bonham's Casewhere Chief Justice Coke went so far as to say that the Court could declare an Act of Parliament void if it made a man as judge in his own cause, or otherwise ‘against common right and reason’. This was one of his grounds for disallowing the claim of the College of Physicians to fine and imprison Doctor Bonham, a Doctor of Physics of Cambridge University, for practising in the city of London without the licence of College of Physicians. The statute under which the College acted provided that fines should go half to the King half to the College so that the College had a financial interest in its own judgement and was judged in its own cause.

Question:

Mr X is an employee of a corporate office. His wife Y is a judge. In one instance, X is found to be involved in a money laundering case at his office. The office now files a suit and Y is appointed as the judge for this case. Decide.

Option: 1

Y is a judge by herself, hence can be appointed to adjudicate this case


Option: 2

Y is can be appointed as a judge only if she fulfils her responsibilities without any bias


Option: 3

Y can adjudicate the case and if the company finds the penalty to be insufficient then they can appeal against it


Option: 4

Y cannot be the judge in this case ab initio


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

Natural justice is another name for common sense justice rules of natural justice are not in codified form these principles are embedded or ingrained or inbuilt in the conscience of human beings. It supplies the omission made in codified law and helps in the administration of justice. Natural justice is not only confined to ‘fairness’ it will take many shades and colours based on the context. Thus natural justice apart from ‘fairness’ also implies reasonableness, equity and equality. They are neither cast in a rigid mould nor can they be put in a legal straitjacket. These principles written by nature in the heart of mankind, they are immutable, inviolable, and inalienable.

It is true that the concept of natural justice is not very clear and, therefore, it is not possible to define it; yet the principles of natural justice are accepted and enforced. In the case of Ridge V. Baldwin Court observed that “in modern times have sometimes been expressed to the effect that natural justice is as vague as to be practically meaningless. But I would regard these as tainted by the perennial fallacy that because something cannot be cut and dried or nicely weighed or measured therefore it does not exist”. The term natural justice signifies fundamental rules of judicial procedure and fair play in action. According to Lord Widgery “the principles of natural justice were those fundamental rules; the breach will prevent justice from being seen to be done”. Earliest expression of ‘natural justice’ could be found in the philosophical expression of Roman Jurist (jus natural) and signified rules and principles for the conduct of man which were independent of enacted law or customs and could be discovered by the rational intelligence of man and would grow out of and conform to his nature.

The rule against bias that surfaced in 1610 in Dr Bonham's Casewhere Chief Justice Coke went so far as to say that the Court could declare an Act of Parliament void if it made a man as judge in his own cause, or otherwise ‘against common right and reason’. This was one of his grounds for disallowing the claim of the College of Physicians to fine and imprison Doctor Bonham, a Doctor of Physics of Cambridge University, for practising in the city of London without the licence of College of Physicians. The statute under which the College acted provided that fines should go half to the King half to the College so that the College had a financial interest in its own judgement and was judged in its own cause.

Question:

X was a renowned cricketer in the 1980s. His son Y is a struggling cricketer who has been trying to get into the national team for many years. In the year 2020, X is appointed as a member of the selection committee. In the match which is supposed to decide the final team of the nation, Y scores a century and Z scores 65 runs. However, Z is selected to represent India and Y is not. Y now appeals against the decision, the main ground being the presence of X in the committee. Decide.

Option: 1

The appeal will stand as Y scored a century yet Z was selected after scoring 65 runs


Option: 2

The appeal will be quashed since X’s presence should have benefitted Y, but it didn’t, hence the rejection of Y is valid


Option: 3

The appeal will stand as X’s presence is a factor of bias


Option: 4

The appeal will be quashed since X was a renowned cricketer


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

Natural justice is another name for common sense justice rules of natural justice are not in codified form these principles are embedded or ingrained or inbuilt in the conscience of human beings. It supplies the omission made in codified law and helps in the administration of justice. Natural justice is not only confined to ‘fairness’ it will take many shades and colours based on the context. Thus natural justice apart from ‘fairness’ also implies reasonableness, equity and equality. They are neither cast in a rigid mould nor can they be put in a legal straitjacket. These principles written by nature in the heart of mankind, they are immutable, inviolable, and inalienable.

It is true that the concept of natural justice is not very clear and, therefore, it is not possible to define it; yet the principles of natural justice are accepted and enforced. In the case of Ridge V. Baldwin Court observed that “in modern times have sometimes been expressed to the effect that natural justice is as vague as to be practically meaningless. But I would regard these as tainted by the perennial fallacy that because something cannot be cut and dried or nicely weighed or measured therefore it does not exist”. The term natural justice signifies fundamental rules of judicial procedure and fair play in action. According to Lord Widgery “the principles of natural justice were those fundamental rules; the breach will prevent justice from being seen to be done”. Earliest expression of ‘natural justice’ could be found in the philosophical expression of Roman Jurist (jus natural) and signified rules and principles for the conduct of man which were independent of enacted law or customs and could be discovered by the rational intelligence of man and would grow out of and conform to his nature.

The rule against bias that surfaced in 1610 in Dr Bonham's Casewhere Chief Justice Coke went so far as to say that the Court could declare an Act of Parliament void if it made a man as judge in his own cause, or otherwise ‘against common right and reason’. This was one of his grounds for disallowing the claim of the College of Physicians to fine and imprison Doctor Bonham, a Doctor of Physics of Cambridge University, for practising in the city of London without the licence of College of Physicians. The statute under which the College acted provided that fines should go half to the King half to the College so that the College had a financial interest in its own judgement and was judged in its own cause.

Question:

X is a married judge who is well known for his honesty in the entire city. He has a son Y. One fine day Y gets kidnapped and the kidnapper demands a sum of 20 lakhs from X. However, the kidnapper is caught by the police. X is now appointed as the judge for the hearing of the kidnapper. Decide.

Option: 1

X can be the judge since he can decide the punishment better as he was the sufferer


Option: 2

X cannot be the judge since there is a possibility that he will be biased while delivering the judgement


Option: 3

X can be the judge since he is renowned for his honesty and fulfil his duties


Option: 4

X can be the judge but his statement can be appealed against if delivered with bias


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

Natural justice is another name for common sense justice rules of natural justice are not in codified form these principles are embedded or ingrained or inbuilt in the conscience of human beings. It supplies the omission made in codified law and helps in the administration of justice. Natural justice is not only confined to ‘fairness’ it will take many shades and colours based on the context. Thus natural justice apart from ‘fairness’ also implies reasonableness, equity and equality. They are neither cast in a rigid mould nor can they be put in a legal straitjacket. These principles written by nature in the heart of mankind, they are immutable, inviolable, and inalienable.

It is true that the concept of natural justice is not very clear and, therefore, it is not possible to define it; yet the principles of natural justice are accepted and enforced. In the case of Ridge V. Baldwin Court observed that “in modern times have sometimes been expressed to the effect that natural justice is as vague as to be practically meaningless. But I would regard these as tainted by the perennial fallacy that because something cannot be cut and dried or nicely weighed or measured therefore it does not exist”. The term natural justice signifies fundamental rules of judicial procedure and fair play in action. According to Lord Widgery “the principles of natural justice were those fundamental rules; the breach will prevent justice from being seen to be done”. Earliest expression of ‘natural justice’ could be found in the philosophical expression of Roman Jurist (jus natural) and signified rules and principles for the conduct of man which were independent of enacted law or customs and could be discovered by the rational intelligence of man and would grow out of and conform to his nature.

The rule against bias that surfaced in 1610 in Dr Bonham's Casewhere Chief Justice Coke went so far as to say that the Court could declare an Act of Parliament void if it made a man as judge in his own cause, or otherwise ‘against common right and reason’. This was one of his grounds for disallowing the claim of the College of Physicians to fine and imprison Doctor Bonham, a Doctor of Physics of Cambridge University, for practising in the city of London without the licence of College of Physicians. The statute under which the College acted provided that fines should go half to the King half to the College so that the College had a financial interest in its own judgement and was judged in its own cause.

Question:

X and Y have been married for five years. X is a judge and Y is a doctor. X is pretty much unhappy with his married life so he wants to divorce Y. Y refuses to agree to a divorce by mutual consent hence X files a suit against Y. Decide.

Option: 1

X cannot file a suit since he is a judge


Option: 2

X can file a suit against Y in legal capacity but not as a judge


Option: 3

X cannot file a divorce suit against Y since there is no valid ground for divorce


Option: 4

X can proceed with mutual consent but not contested divorce


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

In the case of M/S Halonex Limited, 59-A Noida vs State of U.P., it was held that “In reply to the aforesaid submission, learned counsel for opposite party no.2 submitted that the case of the applicants that no amount is due from their side to the complainant is a matter of defence which cannot be considered at this stage. It has been submitted that the term 'entrustment' as used in Section 405 IPC has been given a wider interpretation. It has been submitted that the goods returned by the complainant to the Company for replacement or for reimbursement would be deemed to have been entrusted to the Company and as the applicants 2 & 3 were handling its affair they become responsible. To buttress the said submission, the learned counsel for the complainant drew the attention of the Court to a decision of the Apex Court in the case of Ram Narayan Popli Vs. Central Bureau of Investigation: (2003) 3 SCC 641, wherein it was observed that: "the term "entrustment" is not necessarily a term of law. It may have different implications in different contexts. In its most general signification all it imports is the handing over possession for some purpose which may not imply the conferring of any proprietary right at all." Attention was also drawn to an observation made in the judgment of the aforesaid case, where it was observed that: "to establish the charge of criminal breach of trust, the prosecution is not obliged to prove the precise mode of conversion, misappropriation or misapplication by the accused of the property entrusted to him or over which he has dominion. The principal ingredient of the offence being dishonest misappropriation or conversion which may not ordinarily be a matter of direct proof, entrustment of property and failure in breach of an obligation to account for the property entrusted if proved, may, in the light of other circumstances, justifiably lead to an inference of dishonest misappropriation or conversion”.

Question:

X tracks down an expensive necklace on the road. Not knowing to whom it belongs. X sells it promptly to a jeweller without attempting to find the owner or submitting the necklace to the authorities. Decide the liability of X.

Option: 1

Extortion


Option: 2

Criminal breach of trust


Option: 3

Theft


Option: 4

Criminal misappropriation of Property


Lawyer
4 Jobs Available
Civil Lawyer

Are you searching for a civil lawyer job description? A civil lawyer is a law professional who deals with disputes that come under civil law. Civil law is applicable to issues related t property and business disputes, family disputes, and torts. A tort can be defined as a civil wrong that causes the other person harm or injury. A Civil lawyer handles disputes regarding personal injury, family relationships, real estate, and employment. A career as a civil lawyer requires working with government entities and business institutions. 

3 Jobs Available
Human Rights Lawyer

Individuals in the human rights lawyer career path are legal professionals responsible for advocating for people whose inherent dignity has been violated and who have suffered a lot of injustice. They take cases to defend the human rights of minorities, vulnerable populations, the LGBTQI community, indigenous people and others. 

2 Jobs Available
Criminal Lawyer

A criminal lawyer is a lawyer who specialises in the field of crimes and punishments. Individuals who have been accused of committing a crime are guided by a criminal lawyer. Bail bond hearings, plea bargains, trials, dismissal hearings, appeals, and post-conviction procedures are all part of his or her work. Criminal law is the body of law that describes criminal acts, governs the arrest, prosecution, and trial of offenders, and defines the sentences and correctional options that are available to criminals.

2 Jobs Available
Family Lawyer

Family lawyers are required to assist a client in resolving any family-related problem. In general, family lawyers operate as mediators between family members when conflicts arise. Individuals who opt for a career as Family Lawyer is charged with drafting prenuptial agreements to protect someone's financial interests prior to marriage, consulting on grounds for impeachment or civil union separation, and drafting separation agreements.

2 Jobs Available
Cyber Lawyer

Cyber law careers deal with cyber law job opportunities concerning cybercrimes of all aspects such as cyberbullying, cyber frauds, cyber stalking, sharing personal information without consent, intellectual property and intellectual property, transactions, and freedom of speech.

2 Jobs Available
Immigration Lawyer

An immigration lawyer is responsible for representing the individuals (clients) involved in the immigration process that includes legal, and illegal citizens and refugees who want to reside in the country, start a business or get employment. 

2 Jobs Available
Government Lawyer

A career as Government Lawyer is a professional who deals with law and requires to work for the government. He or she is required to work for either the state government or central government and is also known as Advocate General of the state and attorney general. A career as Government Lawyer requires one to work on behalf of government ministers and administrative staff. He or she gives legal advice and provides legal services in the public interest.

2 Jobs Available
Back to top