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Legal Reasoning Questions For CLAT 2026 with Answers - Free PDF Download

Legal Reasoning Questions For CLAT 2026 with Answers - Free PDF Download

Edited By Ritika Jonwal | Updated on Jul 16, 2025 09:47 AM IST | #CLAT
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Are you getting ready to ace the challenging CLAT 2026 exam's Legal Reasoning section? Your search is over here! Examine our vast collection of CLAT 2026 Legal Reasoning Questions, which have been carefully chosen and include comprehensive answers to help you be ready like never before.

The legal reasoning section is one of the most important sections for CLAT 2026. The Legal Reasoning Section of the CLAT exam comprises 23 to 32 questions in total. These questions will be passage-based questions related to basic law principles, legal matters and public policy. To ace the legal reasoning section, the students should be well equipped with a plan on how to deal with the section and score good marks.

This Story also Contains
  1. Topics Covered Under the CLAT Legal Reasoning Section
  2. CLAT Legal Reasoning 2026 Questions with Answers
  3. You can also Check
  4. Preparation Tips For CLAT Legal Reasoning Section 2026
Legal Reasoning Questions For CLAT 2026 with Answers - Free PDF Download
Legal Reasoning Questions For CLAT 2026 with Answers - Free PDF Download

Also, check - Logical Reasoning Questions for CLAT PDF 2026 with Detailed Solutions

Topics Covered Under the CLAT Legal Reasoning Section

Below are the topics that are covered under the CLAT Legal Reasoning Section:

  • Passage-based Questions

  • Basic principles of Law

  • Legal maxims and doctrines

  • Recent Amendments in Law and Constitutional Amendments

  • Questions related to application-based scenarios

  • Law subjects include Constitutional Law, Torts Law, Contract Law, and Criminal Law

Also Check: Preparation tips for CLAT Legal Reasoning

CLAT Legal Reasoning 2026 Questions with Answers

Passage 1

The Contract Act 1872 deals with contract law in India, its rights, duties, and exceptions arising out of it. Section 2(h) of the Act gives us the definition of a contract, which is simply an agreement enforceable by law. To understand the difference between void agreements and voidable contracts, it is important to talk about sections 2(h), 2(a), 2(i), 14, 16 (3) and 15,24-28 of the Indian Contract Act. Void agreements are fundamentally invalid, making them unenforceable by default. These agreements cannot be fulfilled as they consist of illegal elements, and they cannot be enforced even after being it to both parties. However, in the case of a voidable contract, the agreement is initially enforceable, but it is later denied at the option of either of the parties due to various reasons.

Unless rejected by a party, this contract will remain valid and enforceable. The party who is at a disadvantage due to any circumstance applicable to the contract can render the agreement void. A void agreement is void ab initio, making it impossible to rectify any defects in it, while voidable contracts can be rectified. In case of a void agreement, neither of the parties is subject to any compensation for any loss,s but voidable contracts have some remedies.

A valid agreement forms a contract that may again be either valid or voidable. The primary difference between a void agreement anthe d voidable contract is that a void agreement cannot be converted into a contract.

(Extracted with edits from A Comparative Study of Voidable Contracts and Void Agreements)

1. Which of the following best describes a void agreement?
(A) An agreement that is valid until declared invalid by a court
(B) An agreement that has no legal effect from the beginning
(C) a legally enforceable agreement
(D) An agreement that can be enforced if one party chooses to do so

Answer: (B) An agreement that has no legal effect from the beginning

Explanation:
A void agreement is void ab initio (from the beginning) and has no legal effect. It is unenforceable by law because it contains illegal elements or defects that cannot be rectified. It is invalid from the outset, unlike voidable contracts, which are initially valid but may be rescinded.

2. A contract between two parties to rob a bank and share the proceeds equally can be termed as:
(A) Void Contract
(B) Valid Contract
(C) Voidable Contract
(D) Legally Enforceable Contract

Answer: (A) Void Contract

Explanation:
Agreements involving illegal acts (like robbing a bank) are void because they are unlawful and against public policy. Such contracts are not enforceable by law under the Indian Contract Act.

3. An agreement made by an adult but involving a minor child where the signatory is a minor child himself, this agreement would be:
(A) A valid and enforceable agreement
(B) A voidable agreement
(C) A void agreement
(D) An agreement that cannot be enforced by the minor

Answer: (C) A void agreement

Explanation:
Contracts entered into by minors are void in law because minors cannot contract. Hence, any agreement where the signatory is a minor is void and not enforceable.

4. Which of the following scenarios would most likely result in a void agreement?
(A) An agreement signed by someone under duress
(B) A contract with mutually agreed-upon terms to sell a house
(C) An agreement to pay 10 lakhs on getting a government job
(D) A contract with a minor who understands the terms

Answer: (C) An agreement to pay 10 lakhs on getting a government job

Explanation:
This type of agreement is considered void because it involves an uncertain event dependent on the government’s action and might be illegal or against public policy. Agreements that are contingent on illegal acts or uncertain and unlawful events are void.

  • (A) Duress leads to a voidable contract, not void.

  • (B) It is a valid contract.

  • (D) Contracts with minors are void, but here the minor “understands terms,” which does not grant capacity to contract; generally, it is void.

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5. An agreement made without consideration is generally:
(A) Valid agreement
(B) Enforceable agreement
(C) Void agreement
(D) Voidable agreement

Answer: (C) Void agreement

Explanation:
Under the Indian Contract Act Section 25, agreements made without consideration are generally void, except in certain specified cases. Consideration is an essential element of a valid contract.

Passage 2

The Indian Penal Code (IPC) defines "murder" under Section 300, which states that culpable homicide is murder if the act is done

  1. To cause death;

  2. To cause such bodily injury as is likely to cause death;

  3. With the knowledge that the act is so imminently dangerous that it must, in all probability, cause death or such bodily injury as is likely to cause death;

  4. To cause death or such bodily injury as is likely to cause death, and the act is done without any excuse.

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Section 302 prescribes the punishment for murder, which may extend to life imprisonment or death.

Q6. If a person intentionally causes the death of another person, which of the following best describes the offence committed?

A) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder

B) Murder under Section 300 of the IPC

C) Attempt to murder

D) Grievous hurt

Correct Answer: B) Murder under Section 300 of the IPC

Explanation: According to Section 300 of the IPC, if a person intentionally causes the death of another, it constitutes murder.

Q7. If a person causes bodily injury to another with the knowledge that it is likely to cause death, which section of the IPC is applicable?

A) Section 299

B) Section 300

C) Section 302

D) Section 304

Correct Answer: B) Section 300

Explanation: Section 300 of the IPC defines murder, including causing bodily injury with the knowledge that it is likely to cause death.

Q8. Which of the following is a defence to a charge of murder under Section 300 of the IPC?

A) Grave and sudden provocation

B) Self-defence

C) Mistake of fact

D) All of the above

Correct Answer: D) All of the above

Explanation: Grave and sudden provocation, self-defence, and mistake of fact can all serve as defences that may reduce the offence from murder to culpable homicide not amounting to murder under Section 300 of the IPC.

Q9. If a person commits an act to cause death but without any excuse, and the act results in death, what is the punishment prescribed under Section 302 of the IPC?

A) Imprisonment for life

B) Death penalty or imprisonment for life

C) Imprisonment for a term not exceeding 10 years

D) Fine only

Correct Answer: B) Death penalty or imprisonment for life

Explanation: Section 302 of the IPC prescribes the punishment for murder, which may extend to the death penalty or imprisonment for life.

Q10. Which of the following is NOT a condition under Section 300 of the IPC that makes an act amount to murder?

A) Intention to cause death

B) Knowledge that the act is likely to cause death

C) Grave and sudden provocation

D) Intention to cause bodily injury likely to cause death

Correct Answer: C) Grave and sudden provocation

Explanation: Grave and sudden provocation is a mitigating factor that may reduce the offence from murder to culpable homicide not amounting to murder, as per Section 300 of the IPC.

Passage 3

In a landmark decision, the Supreme Court of India addressed the scope of Section 319 of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC), which empowers a court to summon additional accused persons during a trial if their involvement appears evident. The Court emphasised that this provision should be exercised judiciously and sparingly, ensuring that the accused's right to a fair trial is not compromised. The judgment underscored the necessity for a prima facie case before invoking Section 319, cautioning against its misuse to prevent unnecessary harassment of individuals not initially named in the charge sheet.

Q11. What is the primary purpose of Section 319 of the CrPC?

A) To allow courts to summon additional witnesses during a trial.
B) To permit courts to summon additional accused persons during a trial.
C) To enable courts to change the charges against an accused.
D) To provide a mechanism for appealing a trial court's decision.

Correct Answer: B) To permit courts to summon additional accused persons during a trial.

Explanation: Section 319 CrPC grants courts the authority to summon additional accused persons if, during the trial, evidence emerges indicating their involvement in the offence.

Q12. According to the Supreme Court's judgment, how should Section 319 CrPC be exercised?

A) Arbitrarily, to ensure all potential accused are tried together.
B) Judiciously and sparingly, with a prima facie case.
C) Only in cases where the accused are present in court.
D) Automatically, without the need for additional evidence.

Correct Answer: B) Judiciously and sparingly, with a prima facie case.

Explanation: The Court emphasised that Section 319 should be invoked cautiously, ensuring that there is sufficient preliminary evidence before summoning additional accused.

Q13. What safeguard did the Supreme Court highlight regarding the use of Section 319 CrPC?

A) It should be used to expedite trials.
B) It should be used to prevent unnecessary harassment of individuals.
C) It should be used to include all possible accused in a single trial.
D) It should be used to bypass the regular investigation process.

Correct Answer: B) It should be used to prevent unnecessary harassment of individuals.

Explanation: The Court cautioned against the misuse of Section 319, stressing the importance of protecting individuals from undue harassment by ensuring a prima facie case before summoning additional accused.

Q14. What does the term "prima facie case" refer to in the context of Section 319 CrPC?

A) A case where the evidence conclusively proves the accused's guilt.
B) A case where the evidence initially suggests the involvement of additional accused.
C) A case where no evidence is required to summon additional accused.
D) A case where the accused voluntarily admits to the offence.

Correct Answer: B) A case where the evidence initially suggests the involvement of an additional accused.

Explanation: A "prima facie case" refers to the initial evidence that, unless rebutted, is sufficient to support the allegations against the additional accused.

Q15. What was the Supreme Court's stance on the misuse of Section 319 CrPC?

A) It should be used liberally to ensure all involved parties are tried.
B) It should be used sparingly to avoid unnecessary complications.
C) It should be used to expedite the judicial process.
D) It should be used to bypass lower courts' decisions.

Correct Answer: B) It should be used sparingly to avoid unnecessary complications.

Explanation: The Court warned against the liberal use of Section 319, highlighting the potential for misuse and the importance of safeguarding individuals' rights by ensuring a prima facie case before summoning additional accused.

Passage 4

Justice MM Sundresh of the Supreme Court observed that there is a need to codify the law enabling law enforcement agencies to carry out surveillance while ensuring that fundamental rights, including the right to privacy, are safeguarded. “Any action facilitating State machinery must be backed by the authority of law. For that, there must be a codified law that empowers an investigating agency to undertake an act of surveillance. Needless to state, such a law must be subject to the Constitutional mandate, with specific reference to Part III of the Constitution. This would prevent any arbitrary action while preserving the privacy of the individual,” he said. He emphasised that the need of the hour is to take note of the voice and concerns expressed in the Puttaswamy judgment, which held that privacy is a fundamental right. There is a need to uphold privacy through the doctrine of proportionality, the judge explained. A clear demarcation is needed by drawing a Lakshman Rekha during a criminal investigation (when surveillance is used),” he said. Speaking on the need for surveillance, Justice Sundresh said, “Surveillance and privacy must live and function together. As long as there is privacy, surveillance will certainly continue. The modern world has indeed become a difficult place to live and maintain peace. The cost of peace is very high.

Q16: What is the primary concern expressed by Justice MM Sundresh regarding surveillance?

A) Surveillance should be unrestricted to ensure national security.
B) Surveillance must be codified by law to prevent arbitrary actions.
C) Surveillance is unnecessary in the modern world.
D) Surveillance should be conducted without judicial oversight.

Correct Answer: B) Surveillance must be codified by law to prevent arbitrary actions.

Explanation: Justice Sundresh emphasises the need for a codified law that empowers investigating agencies to undertake surveillance, ensuring that such actions are backed by legal authority and subject to constitutional mandates.

Q17: Which judgment does Justice Sundresh refer to in the passage?

A) Kesavananda Bharati case
B) Puttaswamy judgment
C) Maneka Gandhi case
D) Keshavananda Bharati case

Correct Answer: B) Puttaswamy judgment

Explanation: Justice Sundresh refers to the Puttaswamy judgment, which recognised the right to privacy as a fundamental right under the Constitution of India.

Q18: What legal principle does Justice Sundresh advocate for in relation to surveillance?

A) Doctrine of Necessity
B) Doctrine of proportionality
C) Doctrine of absolute immunity
D) Doctrine of public interest

Correct Answer: B) Doctrine of proportionality

Explanation: Justice Sundresh advocates for the doctrine of proportionality, ensuring that surveillance measures are balanced against the individual's right to privacy.

Q19: What metaphor does Justice Sundresh use to describe the need for boundaries in surveillance?

A) Great Wall
B) Lakshman Rekha
C) Iron Curtain
D) Red Line

Correct Answer: B) Lakshman Rekha

Explanation: Justice Sundresh uses the metaphor of "Lakshman Rekha" to signify the clear demarcation needed during criminal investigations when surveillance is used, ensuring it does not infringe upon fundamental rights.

Q20: According to the passage, what is the relationship between privacy and surveillance?

A) Privacy and surveillance are mutually exclusive.
B) Surveillance can coexist with privacy if regulated by law.
C) Privacy is irrelevant in the context of surveillance.
D) Surveillance should be prioritised over privacy.

Correct Answer: B) Surveillance can coexist with privacy if regulated by law.

Explanation: The passage suggests that surveillance and privacy can coexist, provided that surveillance is conducted within the framework of the law and respects constitutional mandates.

You can also Check

Preparation Tips For CLAT Legal Reasoning Section 2026

Understand the Legal Reasoning Section

About 28–32 multiple-choice questions, each of which is about 450 words long, are based on 4–5 readings. Questions that assess your ability to apply given ideas to particular situations follow passages that discuss legal problems, public policy, or moral quandaries. One score is awarded for each right response; 0.25 marks are subtracted for each wrong response.

Work on Developing Core Skills

Improve your speed and accuracy in comprehending challenging texts. Develop your ability to analyse arguments and pinpoint underlying ideas . Without depending on past information, learn how to apply legal principles to new fact situations. To prevent misunderstandings, pay close attention to the precise wording used in the sections and questions.

Try to Read Regularly

Set aside time each day to read editorials, legal journals, and newspapers to improve your comprehension and keep up with current events.

Practice Legal Reasoning Application

Take part in activities that call for applying legal ideas to different factual situations. Your analytical abilities will improve as a result of this practice, which will also teach you how to approach various kinds of questions.

Practice Regularly and Appear For the Mock Test

Try to get a feel for the exam format and time limits by regularly taking practice exams and past years' question papers. You can identify opportunities for development by evaluating your performance on these tests.

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

1. What is CLAT's legal reasoning?

The CLAT exam's key legal reasoning part gauges your ability to analyse critically and logically. It evaluates your capacity to comprehend legal ideas, assess defences, scrutinise statutes, and apply these principles to specific situations.

2. How many CLAT questions test legal reasoning?

There are typically 40 to 50 legal reasoning questions on the CLAT. These inquiries could be based on a variety of subjects, including torts, criminal law, contracts, and constitutional law.

3. How are the CLAT's legal reasoning questions structured?

A passage or scenario is followed by a series of statements or questions in the CLAT's legal reasoning questions. To correctly answer the questions, you must attentively read and consider the paragraph.

4. What abilities are needed to answer questions about legal reasoning on the CLAT?

Strong reading comprehension, logical reasoning, critical thinking, and familiarity with key legal topics and principles are all necessary for success in legal reasoning.

5. How should I handle inquiries using legal reasoning?

To begin, carefully read the passage and comprehend the scenario. Identify the main details, rules of law, and arguments made. After carefully examining each question and its possible answers, rule out the erroneous ones and choose the response that best fits the facts provided.

6. Is prior legal knowledge required to answer questions using legal reasoning?

No, prior legal knowledge is not required to answer questions about legal reasoning on the CLAT. But you can greatly benefit from having a rudimentary awareness of legal concepts and principles help you analyse the questions and successfully respond to them.

7. How can I strengthen my capacity for legal reasoning?

Read newspapers and articles about law-related topics, practice answering a variety of legal reasoning questions, hone your analytical reasoning and critical thinking abilities, become familiar with significant legal precedents, and more can all help you perform better on legal reasoning tests. To improve your preparation, you can also enrol in CLAT coaching programs or use online tools and practice exams.

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Questions related to CLAT

Have a question related to CLAT ?

CLAT is a entrance exam,after clearing CLAT exam you are eligible for national law University ,But after CLAT you does not got any type of scholarship,but after clearing this exam you have many opportunities on the basis of merit you will got different type of scholarships.

Hello Vaishali

A CLAT score of 46.25 is considered low for top NLUs (National Law Universities), but you can still get a lower NLU (if reserved category) or a private college like:

1. UPES Dehradun
2. ICFAI Law School, Hyderabad
3. Alliance University, Bangalore
4. VIT School of Law
5. Amity Law School, Noida

For more information about CLAT: CLAT 2025

Hope this answer helps! Thank You!!!

Hi dear candidate,

Your rank of 4032 in CLAT exam with EWS appears to be insufficient for admission in IP University colleges as the category wise cut off for IPU colleges is lower than your rank at least for the top tier colleges like VIPS and MAIMS.

The majority of seats are reserved for students with Delhi domicile in IPU colleges and if you belong to outside Delhi then, it's slightly difficult.

However, some colleges like Trinity (TIIPS) in Dwarka accepted admissions for Law at higher rank of around 8,000 so you might also have a chance there.

Otherwise, you can find top Law colleges in Delhi NCR at our official website:

Law Colleges in Delhi NCR 2025 – Courses, Fees, Admission, Rank

BEST REGARDS

Hello Aspirant,

The CLAT (Common Law Admission Test) exam consists of five subjects which are given below:-

1. English Language

2. Current Affairs, including General Knowledge

3.Legal Reasoning

4. Logical Reasoning

5. Quantitative Techniques (Basic Mathematics)

And

These subjects are tested in one single paper with 120 multiple-choice questions for UG CLAT (as per the latest pattern from 2024 onwards). Each question carries 1 mark, and there's a 0.25 negative mark for every incorrect answer.


With an All India SC category rank of 1561 in CLAT, you have a strong chance of getting admission into several National Law Universities through the counselling rounds. Based on past year trends, this rank can fetch you a seat in NLUs like NLIU Bhopal, HNLU Raipur, RGNUL Patiala, and possibly even higher-ranked ones like WBNUJS Kolkata or NLU Jodhpur depending on how cutoffs move in the later rounds.

SC category cutoffs for top NLUs tend to vary each year, but many of them have admitted students with SC ranks between 1500 and 3000, especially in rounds 2 and 3. Your chances increase further if you list a wide range of NLUs in your preference order during counselling. Also, make sure to complete all required counselling steps, document verification, and preference locking on time to avoid missing out.

With your rank, you're well-positioned to get a seat—just stay active in the admission process and keep checking updates from the CLAT consortium.

View All

Read the passage carefully and answer the question

The Contract should be performed by the promisor himself. However, in certain cases, it can also be performed by his agents or legal representatives. It all depends upon the intention of the parties. Normally a contract can be performed by the following persons. 

  1. Promisor himself: If from the nature of the contract it appears that it was the intention of the parties that the promise should be performed by the promisor himself, such promise must be performed by the promisor. This usually applies to contracts involving personal skill, task, or artwork. 
  2. Promisor or his Agent: Where the contract does not involve the personal skill of the promisor, the contract could be performed by the promisor himself or by any competent person employed by him for the purpose, 
  3. Legal Representatives: The contracts which do not involve any personal skill or taste, may be performed by his legal representative after the death of the promisor.
  4. Third Person: In some cases, a contract may be performed by a third person provided the promisee accepts the arrangement. According to Section 41 of the Indian Contract Act, once the promisee accepts the performance from a third person, he cannot compel the promisor to perform the contract again. 
  5. Performance of Joint Promises: According to section 42 of the Indian Contract Act, when two or more persons have made a joint promise, the joint promisors must fulfill the promise jointly during their lifetime. And if any one of them dies, then his legal representatives and survivors must jointly fulfill the promise. 

Section 43 of the Indian Contract Act further provides that unless a contrary intention appears from the contract, each joint promisor may compel every other joint promisor to contribute equally to the performance of the promise. If any joint promisor makes a default in such contribution, the remaining joint promisors must bear the loss arising from such default in equal shares.

Question:

Aman received a box of chocolates from Basant and promised to pay Rupees 5000. Later on, A becomes bankrupt. Chetan who is a friend of Aman pays rupees 1000 to Besant on behalf of Aman. Aman is not aware of such a transaction. In civil court, insolvency proceedings have started against Aman. Meanwhile, Basant has also applied for a recovery of 5000 rupees. Decide.

Option: 1

Basant is entitled to recover the amount of 5000 from Aman.


Option: 2

Basant is entitled to recover the amount of 4000 from Aman.


Option: 3

Chetan is entitled to recover the amount of 1000 from Basant.


Option: 4

Basant cannot recover any amount from Aman as he has become insolvent.


Read the passage carefully and answer the question

The Contract should be performed by the promisor himself. However, in certain cases, it can also be performed by his agents or legal representatives. It all depends upon the intention of the parties. Normally a contract can be performed by the following persons. 

  1. Promisor himself: If from the nature of the contract it appears that it was the intention of the parties that the promise should be performed by the promisor himself, such promise must be performed by the promisor. This usually applies to contracts involving personal skill, task, or artwork. 
  2. Promisor or his Agent: Where the contract does not involve the personal skill of the promisor, the contract could be performed by the promisor himself or by any competent person employed by him for the purpose, 
  3. Legal Representatives: The contracts which do not involve any personal skill or taste, may be performed by his legal representative after the death of the promisor.
  4. Third Person: In some cases, a contract may be performed by a third person provided the promisee accepts the arrangement. According to Section 41 of the Indian Contract Act, once the promisee accepts the performance from a third person, he cannot compel the promisor to perform the contract again. 
  5. Performance of Joint Promises: According to section 42 of the Indian Contract Act, when two or more persons have made a joint promise, the joint promisors must fulfill the promise jointly during their lifetime. And if any one of them dies, then his legal representatives and survivors must jointly fulfill the promise. 

Section 43 of the Indian Contract Act further provides that unless a contrary intention appears from the contract, each joint promisor may compel every other joint promisor to contribute equally to the performance of the promise. If any joint promisor makes a default in such contribution, the remaining joint promisors must bear the loss arising from such default in equal shares.

Question:

K promises to paint a picture for L on a certain day, at a certain price. K dies before the day of the contract. Decide. 

Option: 1

The contract can be enforced by K’s representative 


Option: 2

The contract can be enforced by L


Option: 3

The contract can be enforced either by K’s representation or by L 


Option: 4

The contract cannot be enforced either by K’s representative, or L


Read the passage carefully and answer the question

The Contract should be performed by the promisor himself. However, in certain cases, it can also be performed by his agents or legal representatives. It all depends upon the intention of the parties. Normally a contract can be performed by the following persons. 

  1. Promisor himself: If from the nature of the contract it appears that it was the intention of the parties that the promise should be performed by the promisor himself, such promise must be performed by the promisor. This usually applies to contracts involving personal skill, task, or artwork. 
  2. Promisor or his Agent: Where the contract does not involve the personal skill of the promisor, the contract could be performed by the promisor himself or by any competent person employed by him for the purpose, 
  3. Legal Representatives: The contracts which do not involve any personal skill or taste, may be performed by his legal representative after the death of the promisor.
  4. Third Person: In some cases, a contract may be performed by a third person provided the promisee accepts the arrangement. According to Section 41 of the Indian Contract Act, once the promisee accepts the performance from a third person, he cannot compel the promisor to perform the contract again. 
  5. Performance of Joint Promises: According to section 42 of the Indian Contract Act, when two or more persons have made a joint promise, the joint promisors must fulfill the promise jointly during their lifetime. And if any one of them dies, then his legal representatives and survivors must jointly fulfill the promise. 

Section 43 of the Indian Contract Act further provides that unless a contrary intention appears from the contract, each joint promisor may compel every other joint promisor to contribute equally to the performance of the promise. If any joint promisor makes a default in such contribution, the remaining joint promisors must bear the loss arising from such default in equal shares.

Question:

Rohan has agreed to manage the catering services during the marriage of Sohan’s son Ramu. On the day of marriage, Rohan felt ill and sent his manager to the management of catering services. Ramu happily gets married to Tina and people appreciated the food and decoration of the event. When Rohan asked Sohan for the remaining amount, he denied it because Rohan himself had not managed so it is a breach. Decide.

 

Option: 1

Rohan is not entitled to get the remaining amount due to a breach of contract.


Option: 2

Rohan is entitled to sue Sohan for the remaining amount.


Option: 3

Rohan is entitled to sue Ramu because it was his marriage.


Option: 4

Instead of Rohan, his manager can only sue Sohan for the breach.


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

Natural justice is another name for common sense justice rules of natural justice are not in codified form these principles are embedded or ingrained or inbuilt in the conscience of human beings. It supplies the omission made in codified law and helps in the administration of justice. Natural justice is not only confined to ‘fairness’ it will take many shades and colours based on the context. Thus natural justice apart from ‘fairness’ also implies reasonableness, equity and equality. They are neither cast in a rigid mould nor can they be put in a legal straitjacket. These principles written by nature in the heart of mankind, they are immutable, inviolable, and inalienable.

It is true that the concept of natural justice is not very clear and, therefore, it is not possible to define it; yet the principles of natural justice are accepted and enforced. In the case of Ridge V. Baldwin Court observed that “in modern times have sometimes been expressed to the effect that natural justice is as vague as to be practically meaningless. But I would regard these as tainted by the perennial fallacy that because something cannot be cut and dried or nicely weighed or measured therefore it does not exist”. The term natural justice signifies fundamental rules of judicial procedure and fair play in action. According to Lord Widgery “the principles of natural justice were those fundamental rules; the breach will prevent justice from being seen to be done”. Earliest expression of ‘natural justice’ could be found in the philosophical expression of Roman Jurist (jus natural) and signified rules and principles for the conduct of man which were independent of enacted law or customs and could be discovered by the rational intelligence of man and would grow out of and conform to his nature.

The rule against bias that surfaced in 1610 in Dr Bonham's Casewhere Chief Justice Coke went so far as to say that the Court could declare an Act of Parliament void if it made a man as judge in his own cause, or otherwise ‘against common right and reason’. This was one of his grounds for disallowing the claim of the College of Physicians to fine and imprison Doctor Bonham, a Doctor of Physics of Cambridge University, for practising in the city of London without the licence of College of Physicians. The statute under which the College acted provided that fines should go half to the King half to the College so that the College had a financial interest in its own judgement and was judged in its own cause.

Question:

X is a student of a college and his father Y is a professor in the same college. In one instance, X is caught to be involved in unparliamentary activities inside the college campus. The enquiry committee is set up and Y is appointed as the head of the committee. Decide.

Option: 1

Y is a professor of the same college hence he can become a member of the enquiry committee


Option: 2

Y is X’s father hence he should not be a part of the enquiry committee


Option: 3

Y can be a part of the enquiry committee but cannot be its head


Option: 4

There is no rule that prevents the appointment of Y until he fulfils his function diligently


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

Natural justice is another name for common sense justice rules of natural justice are not in codified form these principles are embedded or ingrained or inbuilt in the conscience of human beings. It supplies the omission made in codified law and helps in the administration of justice. Natural justice is not only confined to ‘fairness’ it will take many shades and colours based on the context. Thus natural justice apart from ‘fairness’ also implies reasonableness, equity and equality. They are neither cast in a rigid mould nor can they be put in a legal straitjacket. These principles written by nature in the heart of mankind, they are immutable, inviolable, and inalienable.

It is true that the concept of natural justice is not very clear and, therefore, it is not possible to define it; yet the principles of natural justice are accepted and enforced. In the case of Ridge V. Baldwin Court observed that “in modern times have sometimes been expressed to the effect that natural justice is as vague as to be practically meaningless. But I would regard these as tainted by the perennial fallacy that because something cannot be cut and dried or nicely weighed or measured therefore it does not exist”. The term natural justice signifies fundamental rules of judicial procedure and fair play in action. According to Lord Widgery “the principles of natural justice were those fundamental rules; the breach will prevent justice from being seen to be done”. Earliest expression of ‘natural justice’ could be found in the philosophical expression of Roman Jurist (jus natural) and signified rules and principles for the conduct of man which were independent of enacted law or customs and could be discovered by the rational intelligence of man and would grow out of and conform to his nature.

The rule against bias that surfaced in 1610 in Dr Bonham's Casewhere Chief Justice Coke went so far as to say that the Court could declare an Act of Parliament void if it made a man as judge in his own cause, or otherwise ‘against common right and reason’. This was one of his grounds for disallowing the claim of the College of Physicians to fine and imprison Doctor Bonham, a Doctor of Physics of Cambridge University, for practising in the city of London without the licence of College of Physicians. The statute under which the College acted provided that fines should go half to the King half to the College so that the College had a financial interest in its own judgement and was judged in its own cause.

Question:

Mr X is an employee of a corporate office. His wife Y is a judge. In one instance, X is found to be involved in a money laundering case at his office. The office now files a suit and Y is appointed as the judge for this case. Decide.

Option: 1

Y is a judge by herself, hence can be appointed to adjudicate this case


Option: 2

Y is can be appointed as a judge only if she fulfils her responsibilities without any bias


Option: 3

Y can adjudicate the case and if the company finds the penalty to be insufficient then they can appeal against it


Option: 4

Y cannot be the judge in this case ab initio


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

Natural justice is another name for common sense justice rules of natural justice are not in codified form these principles are embedded or ingrained or inbuilt in the conscience of human beings. It supplies the omission made in codified law and helps in the administration of justice. Natural justice is not only confined to ‘fairness’ it will take many shades and colours based on the context. Thus natural justice apart from ‘fairness’ also implies reasonableness, equity and equality. They are neither cast in a rigid mould nor can they be put in a legal straitjacket. These principles written by nature in the heart of mankind, they are immutable, inviolable, and inalienable.

It is true that the concept of natural justice is not very clear and, therefore, it is not possible to define it; yet the principles of natural justice are accepted and enforced. In the case of Ridge V. Baldwin Court observed that “in modern times have sometimes been expressed to the effect that natural justice is as vague as to be practically meaningless. But I would regard these as tainted by the perennial fallacy that because something cannot be cut and dried or nicely weighed or measured therefore it does not exist”. The term natural justice signifies fundamental rules of judicial procedure and fair play in action. According to Lord Widgery “the principles of natural justice were those fundamental rules; the breach will prevent justice from being seen to be done”. Earliest expression of ‘natural justice’ could be found in the philosophical expression of Roman Jurist (jus natural) and signified rules and principles for the conduct of man which were independent of enacted law or customs and could be discovered by the rational intelligence of man and would grow out of and conform to his nature.

The rule against bias that surfaced in 1610 in Dr Bonham's Casewhere Chief Justice Coke went so far as to say that the Court could declare an Act of Parliament void if it made a man as judge in his own cause, or otherwise ‘against common right and reason’. This was one of his grounds for disallowing the claim of the College of Physicians to fine and imprison Doctor Bonham, a Doctor of Physics of Cambridge University, for practising in the city of London without the licence of College of Physicians. The statute under which the College acted provided that fines should go half to the King half to the College so that the College had a financial interest in its own judgement and was judged in its own cause.

Question:

X was a renowned cricketer in the 1980s. His son Y is a struggling cricketer who has been trying to get into the national team for many years. In the year 2020, X is appointed as a member of the selection committee. In the match which is supposed to decide the final team of the nation, Y scores a century and Z scores 65 runs. However, Z is selected to represent India and Y is not. Y now appeals against the decision, the main ground being the presence of X in the committee. Decide.

Option: 1

The appeal will stand as Y scored a century yet Z was selected after scoring 65 runs


Option: 2

The appeal will be quashed since X’s presence should have benefitted Y, but it didn’t, hence the rejection of Y is valid


Option: 3

The appeal will stand as X’s presence is a factor of bias


Option: 4

The appeal will be quashed since X was a renowned cricketer


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

Natural justice is another name for common sense justice rules of natural justice are not in codified form these principles are embedded or ingrained or inbuilt in the conscience of human beings. It supplies the omission made in codified law and helps in the administration of justice. Natural justice is not only confined to ‘fairness’ it will take many shades and colours based on the context. Thus natural justice apart from ‘fairness’ also implies reasonableness, equity and equality. They are neither cast in a rigid mould nor can they be put in a legal straitjacket. These principles written by nature in the heart of mankind, they are immutable, inviolable, and inalienable.

It is true that the concept of natural justice is not very clear and, therefore, it is not possible to define it; yet the principles of natural justice are accepted and enforced. In the case of Ridge V. Baldwin Court observed that “in modern times have sometimes been expressed to the effect that natural justice is as vague as to be practically meaningless. But I would regard these as tainted by the perennial fallacy that because something cannot be cut and dried or nicely weighed or measured therefore it does not exist”. The term natural justice signifies fundamental rules of judicial procedure and fair play in action. According to Lord Widgery “the principles of natural justice were those fundamental rules; the breach will prevent justice from being seen to be done”. Earliest expression of ‘natural justice’ could be found in the philosophical expression of Roman Jurist (jus natural) and signified rules and principles for the conduct of man which were independent of enacted law or customs and could be discovered by the rational intelligence of man and would grow out of and conform to his nature.

The rule against bias that surfaced in 1610 in Dr Bonham's Casewhere Chief Justice Coke went so far as to say that the Court could declare an Act of Parliament void if it made a man as judge in his own cause, or otherwise ‘against common right and reason’. This was one of his grounds for disallowing the claim of the College of Physicians to fine and imprison Doctor Bonham, a Doctor of Physics of Cambridge University, for practising in the city of London without the licence of College of Physicians. The statute under which the College acted provided that fines should go half to the King half to the College so that the College had a financial interest in its own judgement and was judged in its own cause.

Question:

X is a married judge who is well known for his honesty in the entire city. He has a son Y. One fine day Y gets kidnapped and the kidnapper demands a sum of 20 lakhs from X. However, the kidnapper is caught by the police. X is now appointed as the judge for the hearing of the kidnapper. Decide.

Option: 1

X can be the judge since he can decide the punishment better as he was the sufferer


Option: 2

X cannot be the judge since there is a possibility that he will be biased while delivering the judgement


Option: 3

X can be the judge since he is renowned for his honesty and fulfil his duties


Option: 4

X can be the judge but his statement can be appealed against if delivered with bias


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

Natural justice is another name for common sense justice rules of natural justice are not in codified form these principles are embedded or ingrained or inbuilt in the conscience of human beings. It supplies the omission made in codified law and helps in the administration of justice. Natural justice is not only confined to ‘fairness’ it will take many shades and colours based on the context. Thus natural justice apart from ‘fairness’ also implies reasonableness, equity and equality. They are neither cast in a rigid mould nor can they be put in a legal straitjacket. These principles written by nature in the heart of mankind, they are immutable, inviolable, and inalienable.

It is true that the concept of natural justice is not very clear and, therefore, it is not possible to define it; yet the principles of natural justice are accepted and enforced. In the case of Ridge V. Baldwin Court observed that “in modern times have sometimes been expressed to the effect that natural justice is as vague as to be practically meaningless. But I would regard these as tainted by the perennial fallacy that because something cannot be cut and dried or nicely weighed or measured therefore it does not exist”. The term natural justice signifies fundamental rules of judicial procedure and fair play in action. According to Lord Widgery “the principles of natural justice were those fundamental rules; the breach will prevent justice from being seen to be done”. Earliest expression of ‘natural justice’ could be found in the philosophical expression of Roman Jurist (jus natural) and signified rules and principles for the conduct of man which were independent of enacted law or customs and could be discovered by the rational intelligence of man and would grow out of and conform to his nature.

The rule against bias that surfaced in 1610 in Dr Bonham's Casewhere Chief Justice Coke went so far as to say that the Court could declare an Act of Parliament void if it made a man as judge in his own cause, or otherwise ‘against common right and reason’. This was one of his grounds for disallowing the claim of the College of Physicians to fine and imprison Doctor Bonham, a Doctor of Physics of Cambridge University, for practising in the city of London without the licence of College of Physicians. The statute under which the College acted provided that fines should go half to the King half to the College so that the College had a financial interest in its own judgement and was judged in its own cause.

Question:

X and Y have been married for five years. X is a judge and Y is a doctor. X is pretty much unhappy with his married life so he wants to divorce Y. Y refuses to agree to a divorce by mutual consent hence X files a suit against Y. Decide.

Option: 1

X cannot file a suit since he is a judge


Option: 2

X can file a suit against Y in legal capacity but not as a judge


Option: 3

X cannot file a divorce suit against Y since there is no valid ground for divorce


Option: 4

X can proceed with mutual consent but not contested divorce


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

In the case of M/S Halonex Limited, 59-A Noida vs State of U.P., it was held that “In reply to the aforesaid submission, learned counsel for opposite party no.2 submitted that the case of the applicants that no amount is due from their side to the complainant is a matter of defence which cannot be considered at this stage. It has been submitted that the term 'entrustment' as used in Section 405 IPC has been given a wider interpretation. It has been submitted that the goods returned by the complainant to the Company for replacement or for reimbursement would be deemed to have been entrusted to the Company and as the applicants 2 & 3 were handling its affair they become responsible. To buttress the said submission, the learned counsel for the complainant drew the attention of the Court to a decision of the Apex Court in the case of Ram Narayan Popli Vs. Central Bureau of Investigation: (2003) 3 SCC 641, wherein it was observed that: "the term "entrustment" is not necessarily a term of law. It may have different implications in different contexts. In its most general signification all it imports is the handing over possession for some purpose which may not imply the conferring of any proprietary right at all." Attention was also drawn to an observation made in the judgment of the aforesaid case, where it was observed that: "to establish the charge of criminal breach of trust, the prosecution is not obliged to prove the precise mode of conversion, misappropriation or misapplication by the accused of the property entrusted to him or over which he has dominion. The principal ingredient of the offence being dishonest misappropriation or conversion which may not ordinarily be a matter of direct proof, entrustment of property and failure in breach of an obligation to account for the property entrusted if proved, may, in the light of other circumstances, justifiably lead to an inference of dishonest misappropriation or conversion”.

Question:

X tracks down an expensive necklace on the road. Not knowing to whom it belongs. X sells it promptly to a jeweller without attempting to find the owner or submitting the necklace to the authorities. Decide the liability of X.

Option: 1

Extortion


Option: 2

Criminal breach of trust


Option: 3

Theft


Option: 4

Criminal misappropriation of Property


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

In the case of M/S Halonex Limited, 59-A Noida vs State of U.P., it was held that “In reply to the aforesaid submission, learned counsel for opposite party no.2 submitted that the case of the applicants that no amount is due from their side to the complainant is a matter of defence which cannot be considered at this stage. It has been submitted that the term 'entrustment' as used in Section 405 IPC has been given a wider interpretation. It has been submitted that the goods returned by the complainant to the Company for replacement or for reimbursement would be deemed to have been entrusted to the Company and as the applicants 2 & 3 were handling its affair they become responsible. To buttress the said submission, the learned counsel for the complainant drew the attention of the Court to a decision of the Apex Court in the case of Ram Narayan Popli Vs. Central Bureau of Investigation: (2003) 3 SCC 641, wherein it was observed that: "the term "entrustment" is not necessarily a term of law. It may have different implications in different contexts. In its most general signification all it imports is the handing over possession for some purpose which may not imply the conferring of any proprietary right at all." Attention was also drawn to an observation made in the judgment of the aforesaid case, where it was observed that: "to establish the charge of criminal breach of trust, the prosecution is not obliged to prove the precise mode of conversion, misappropriation or misapplication by the accused of the property entrusted to him or over which he has dominion. The principal ingredient of the offence being dishonest misappropriation or conversion which may not ordinarily be a matter of direct proof, entrustment of property and failure in breach of an obligation to account for the property entrusted if proved, may, in the light of other circumstances, justifiably lead to an inference of dishonest misappropriation or conversion”.

Question:

P borrows from L his phone for using it to call his parents. However, when L is distracted, P removes the memory card of the phone and later on sells it. Decide the liability of P.

Option: 1

P is guilty under dishonest misappropriation of property

 


Option: 2

P is not guilty for any offence since the phone was given with consent


Option: 3

P is guilty for theft


Option: 4

P has been handed over the phone, so he has the right to use it as he likes


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