UPES Integrated LLB Admissions 2025
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Are you getting ready to ace the challenging CLAT 2026 exam's Legal Reasoning section? Your search is over here! Examine our vast collection of CLAT 2026 Legal Reasoning Questions, which have been carefully chosen and include comprehensive answers to help you be ready like never before.
The legal reasoning section is one of the most important sections for CLAT 2026. The Legal Reasoning Section of the CLAT exam comprises 23 to 32 questions in total. These questions will be passage-based questions related to basic law principles, legal matters and public policy. To ace the legal reasoning section, the students should be well equipped with a plan on how to deal with the section and score good marks.
Also, check - Logical Reasoning Questions for CLAT PDF 2026 with Detailed Solutions
Below are the topics that are covered under the CLAT Legal Reasoning Section:
Passage-based Questions
Basic principles of Law
Legal maxims and doctrines
Recent Amendments in Law and Constitutional Amendments
Questions related to application-based scenarios
Law subjects include Constitutional Law, Torts Law, Contract Law, and Criminal Law
Also Check: Preparation tips for CLAT Legal Reasoning
The Contract Act 1872 deals with contract law in India, its rights, duties, and exceptions arising out of it. Section 2(h) of the Act gives us the definition of a contract, which is simply an agreement enforceable by law. To understand the difference between void agreements and voidable contracts, it is important to talk about sections 2(h), 2(a), 2(i), 14, 16 (3) and 15,24-28 of the Indian Contract Act. Void agreements are fundamentally invalid, making them unenforceable by default. These agreements cannot be fulfilled as they consist of illegal elements, and they cannot be enforced even after being it to both parties. However, in the case of a voidable contract, the agreement is initially enforceable, but it is later denied at the option of either of the parties due to various reasons.
Unless rejected by a party, this contract will remain valid and enforceable. The party who is at a disadvantage due to any circumstance applicable to the contract can render the agreement void. A void agreement is void ab initio, making it impossible to rectify any defects in it, while voidable contracts can be rectified. In case of a void agreement, neither of the parties is subject to any compensation for any loss,s but voidable contracts have some remedies.
A valid agreement forms a contract that may again be either valid or voidable. The primary difference between a void agreement anthe d voidable contract is that a void agreement cannot be converted into a contract.
(Extracted with edits from A Comparative Study of Voidable Contracts and Void Agreements)
1. Which of the following best describes a void agreement?
(A) An agreement that is valid until declared invalid by a court
(B) An agreement that has no legal effect from the beginning
(C) a legally enforceable agreement
(D) An agreement that can be enforced if one party chooses to do so
Answer: (B) An agreement that has no legal effect from the beginning
Explanation:
A void agreement is void ab initio (from the beginning) and has no legal effect. It is unenforceable by law because it contains illegal elements or defects that cannot be rectified. It is invalid from the outset, unlike voidable contracts, which are initially valid but may be rescinded.
2. A contract between two parties to rob a bank and share the proceeds equally can be termed as:
(A) Void Contract
(B) Valid Contract
(C) Voidable Contract
(D) Legally Enforceable Contract
Answer: (A) Void Contract
Explanation:
Agreements involving illegal acts (like robbing a bank) are void because they are unlawful and against public policy. Such contracts are not enforceable by law under the Indian Contract Act.
3. An agreement made by an adult but involving a minor child where the signatory is a minor child himself, this agreement would be:
(A) A valid and enforceable agreement
(B) A voidable agreement
(C) A void agreement
(D) An agreement that cannot be enforced by the minor
Answer: (C) A void agreement
Explanation:
Contracts entered into by minors are void in law because minors cannot contract. Hence, any agreement where the signatory is a minor is void and not enforceable.
4. Which of the following scenarios would most likely result in a void agreement?
(A) An agreement signed by someone under duress
(B) A contract with mutually agreed-upon terms to sell a house
(C) An agreement to pay 10 lakhs on getting a government job
(D) A contract with a minor who understands the terms
Answer: (C) An agreement to pay 10 lakhs on getting a government job
Explanation:
This type of agreement is considered void because it involves an uncertain event dependent on the government’s action and might be illegal or against public policy. Agreements that are contingent on illegal acts or uncertain and unlawful events are void.
(A) Duress leads to a voidable contract, not void.
(B) It is a valid contract.
(D) Contracts with minors are void, but here the minor “understands terms,” which does not grant capacity to contract; generally, it is void.
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5. An agreement made without consideration is generally:
(A) Valid agreement
(B) Enforceable agreement
(C) Void agreement
(D) Voidable agreement
Answer: (C) Void agreement
Explanation:
Under the Indian Contract Act Section 25, agreements made without consideration are generally void, except in certain specified cases. Consideration is an essential element of a valid contract.
The Indian Penal Code (IPC) defines "murder" under Section 300, which states that culpable homicide is murder if the act is done
To cause death;
To cause such bodily injury as is likely to cause death;
With the knowledge that the act is so imminently dangerous that it must, in all probability, cause death or such bodily injury as is likely to cause death;
To cause death or such bodily injury as is likely to cause death, and the act is done without any excuse.
Section 302 prescribes the punishment for murder, which may extend to life imprisonment or death.
Q6. If a person intentionally causes the death of another person, which of the following best describes the offence committed?
A) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
B) Murder under Section 300 of the IPC
C) Attempt to murder
D) Grievous hurt
Correct Answer: B) Murder under Section 300 of the IPC
Explanation: According to Section 300 of the IPC, if a person intentionally causes the death of another, it constitutes murder.
Q7. If a person causes bodily injury to another with the knowledge that it is likely to cause death, which section of the IPC is applicable?
A) Section 299
B) Section 300
C) Section 302
D) Section 304
Correct Answer: B) Section 300
Explanation: Section 300 of the IPC defines murder, including causing bodily injury with the knowledge that it is likely to cause death.
Q8. Which of the following is a defence to a charge of murder under Section 300 of the IPC?
A) Grave and sudden provocation
B) Self-defence
C) Mistake of fact
D) All of the above
Correct Answer: D) All of the above
Explanation: Grave and sudden provocation, self-defence, and mistake of fact can all serve as defences that may reduce the offence from murder to culpable homicide not amounting to murder under Section 300 of the IPC.
Q9. If a person commits an act to cause death but without any excuse, and the act results in death, what is the punishment prescribed under Section 302 of the IPC?
A) Imprisonment for life
B) Death penalty or imprisonment for life
C) Imprisonment for a term not exceeding 10 years
D) Fine only
Correct Answer: B) Death penalty or imprisonment for life
Explanation: Section 302 of the IPC prescribes the punishment for murder, which may extend to the death penalty or imprisonment for life.
Q10. Which of the following is NOT a condition under Section 300 of the IPC that makes an act amount to murder?
A) Intention to cause death
B) Knowledge that the act is likely to cause death
C) Grave and sudden provocation
D) Intention to cause bodily injury likely to cause death
Correct Answer: C) Grave and sudden provocation
Explanation: Grave and sudden provocation is a mitigating factor that may reduce the offence from murder to culpable homicide not amounting to murder, as per Section 300 of the IPC.
In a landmark decision, the Supreme Court of India addressed the scope of Section 319 of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC), which empowers a court to summon additional accused persons during a trial if their involvement appears evident. The Court emphasised that this provision should be exercised judiciously and sparingly, ensuring that the accused's right to a fair trial is not compromised. The judgment underscored the necessity for a prima facie case before invoking Section 319, cautioning against its misuse to prevent unnecessary harassment of individuals not initially named in the charge sheet.
Q11. What is the primary purpose of Section 319 of the CrPC?
A) To allow courts to summon additional witnesses during a trial.
B) To permit courts to summon additional accused persons during a trial.
C) To enable courts to change the charges against an accused.
D) To provide a mechanism for appealing a trial court's decision.
Correct Answer: B) To permit courts to summon additional accused persons during a trial.
Explanation: Section 319 CrPC grants courts the authority to summon additional accused persons if, during the trial, evidence emerges indicating their involvement in the offence.
Q12. According to the Supreme Court's judgment, how should Section 319 CrPC be exercised?
A) Arbitrarily, to ensure all potential accused are tried together.
B) Judiciously and sparingly, with a prima facie case.
C) Only in cases where the accused are present in court.
D) Automatically, without the need for additional evidence.
Correct Answer: B) Judiciously and sparingly, with a prima facie case.
Explanation: The Court emphasised that Section 319 should be invoked cautiously, ensuring that there is sufficient preliminary evidence before summoning additional accused.
Q13. What safeguard did the Supreme Court highlight regarding the use of Section 319 CrPC?
A) It should be used to expedite trials.
B) It should be used to prevent unnecessary harassment of individuals.
C) It should be used to include all possible accused in a single trial.
D) It should be used to bypass the regular investigation process.
Correct Answer: B) It should be used to prevent unnecessary harassment of individuals.
Explanation: The Court cautioned against the misuse of Section 319, stressing the importance of protecting individuals from undue harassment by ensuring a prima facie case before summoning additional accused.
Q14. What does the term "prima facie case" refer to in the context of Section 319 CrPC?
A) A case where the evidence conclusively proves the accused's guilt.
B) A case where the evidence initially suggests the involvement of additional accused.
C) A case where no evidence is required to summon additional accused.
D) A case where the accused voluntarily admits to the offence.
Correct Answer: B) A case where the evidence initially suggests the involvement of an additional accused.
Explanation: A "prima facie case" refers to the initial evidence that, unless rebutted, is sufficient to support the allegations against the additional accused.
Q15. What was the Supreme Court's stance on the misuse of Section 319 CrPC?
A) It should be used liberally to ensure all involved parties are tried.
B) It should be used sparingly to avoid unnecessary complications.
C) It should be used to expedite the judicial process.
D) It should be used to bypass lower courts' decisions.
Correct Answer: B) It should be used sparingly to avoid unnecessary complications.
Explanation: The Court warned against the liberal use of Section 319, highlighting the potential for misuse and the importance of safeguarding individuals' rights by ensuring a prima facie case before summoning additional accused.
Justice MM Sundresh of the Supreme Court observed that there is a need to codify the law enabling law enforcement agencies to carry out surveillance while ensuring that fundamental rights, including the right to privacy, are safeguarded. “Any action facilitating State machinery must be backed by the authority of law. For that, there must be a codified law that empowers an investigating agency to undertake an act of surveillance. Needless to state, such a law must be subject to the Constitutional mandate, with specific reference to Part III of the Constitution. This would prevent any arbitrary action while preserving the privacy of the individual,” he said. He emphasised that the need of the hour is to take note of the voice and concerns expressed in the Puttaswamy judgment, which held that privacy is a fundamental right. There is a need to uphold privacy through the doctrine of proportionality, the judge explained. A clear demarcation is needed by drawing a Lakshman Rekha during a criminal investigation (when surveillance is used),” he said. Speaking on the need for surveillance, Justice Sundresh said, “Surveillance and privacy must live and function together. As long as there is privacy, surveillance will certainly continue. The modern world has indeed become a difficult place to live and maintain peace. The cost of peace is very high.
Q16: What is the primary concern expressed by Justice MM Sundresh regarding surveillance?
A) Surveillance should be unrestricted to ensure national security.
B) Surveillance must be codified by law to prevent arbitrary actions.
C) Surveillance is unnecessary in the modern world.
D) Surveillance should be conducted without judicial oversight.
Correct Answer: B) Surveillance must be codified by law to prevent arbitrary actions.
Explanation: Justice Sundresh emphasises the need for a codified law that empowers investigating agencies to undertake surveillance, ensuring that such actions are backed by legal authority and subject to constitutional mandates.
Q17: Which judgment does Justice Sundresh refer to in the passage?
A) Kesavananda Bharati case
B) Puttaswamy judgment
C) Maneka Gandhi case
D) Keshavananda Bharati case
Correct Answer: B) Puttaswamy judgment
Explanation: Justice Sundresh refers to the Puttaswamy judgment, which recognised the right to privacy as a fundamental right under the Constitution of India.
Q18: What legal principle does Justice Sundresh advocate for in relation to surveillance?
A) Doctrine of Necessity
B) Doctrine of proportionality
C) Doctrine of absolute immunity
D) Doctrine of public interest
Correct Answer: B) Doctrine of proportionality
Explanation: Justice Sundresh advocates for the doctrine of proportionality, ensuring that surveillance measures are balanced against the individual's right to privacy.
Q19: What metaphor does Justice Sundresh use to describe the need for boundaries in surveillance?
A) Great Wall
B) Lakshman Rekha
C) Iron Curtain
D) Red Line
Correct Answer: B) Lakshman Rekha
Explanation: Justice Sundresh uses the metaphor of "Lakshman Rekha" to signify the clear demarcation needed during criminal investigations when surveillance is used, ensuring it does not infringe upon fundamental rights.
Q20: According to the passage, what is the relationship between privacy and surveillance?
A) Privacy and surveillance are mutually exclusive.
B) Surveillance can coexist with privacy if regulated by law.
C) Privacy is irrelevant in the context of surveillance.
D) Surveillance should be prioritised over privacy.
Correct Answer: B) Surveillance can coexist with privacy if regulated by law.
Explanation: The passage suggests that surveillance and privacy can coexist, provided that surveillance is conducted within the framework of the law and respects constitutional mandates.
About 28–32 multiple-choice questions, each of which is about 450 words long, are based on 4–5 readings. Questions that assess your ability to apply given ideas to particular situations follow passages that discuss legal problems, public policy, or moral quandaries. One score is awarded for each right response; 0.25 marks are subtracted for each wrong response.
Improve your speed and accuracy in comprehending challenging texts. Develop your ability to analyse arguments and pinpoint underlying ideas . Without depending on past information, learn how to apply legal principles to new fact situations. To prevent misunderstandings, pay close attention to the precise wording used in the sections and questions.
Set aside time each day to read editorials, legal journals, and newspapers to improve your comprehension and keep up with current events.
Take part in activities that call for applying legal ideas to different factual situations. Your analytical abilities will improve as a result of this practice, which will also teach you how to approach various kinds of questions.
Try to get a feel for the exam format and time limits by regularly taking practice exams and past years' question papers. You can identify opportunities for development by evaluating your performance on these tests.
The CLAT exam's key legal reasoning part gauges your ability to analyse critically and logically. It evaluates your capacity to comprehend legal ideas, assess defences, scrutinise statutes, and apply these principles to specific situations.
There are typically 40 to 50 legal reasoning questions on the CLAT. These inquiries could be based on a variety of subjects, including torts, criminal law, contracts, and constitutional law.
A passage or scenario is followed by a series of statements or questions in the CLAT's legal reasoning questions. To correctly answer the questions, you must attentively read and consider the paragraph.
Strong reading comprehension, logical reasoning, critical thinking, and familiarity with key legal topics and principles are all necessary for success in legal reasoning.
To begin, carefully read the passage and comprehend the scenario. Identify the main details, rules of law, and arguments made. After carefully examining each question and its possible answers, rule out the erroneous ones and choose the response that best fits the facts provided.
No, prior legal knowledge is not required to answer questions about legal reasoning on the CLAT. But you can greatly benefit from having a rudimentary awareness of legal concepts and principles help you analyse the questions and successfully respond to them.
Read newspapers and articles about law-related topics, practice answering a variety of legal reasoning questions, hone your analytical reasoning and critical thinking abilities, become familiar with significant legal precedents, and more can all help you perform better on legal reasoning tests. To improve your preparation, you can also enrol in CLAT coaching programs or use online tools and practice exams.
CLAT is a entrance exam,after clearing CLAT exam you are eligible for national law University ,But after CLAT you does not got any type of scholarship,but after clearing this exam you have many opportunities on the basis of merit you will got different type of scholarships.
Hello Vaishali
A CLAT score of 46.25 is considered low for top NLUs (National Law Universities), but you can still get a lower NLU (if reserved category) or a private college like:
1. UPES Dehradun
2. ICFAI Law School, Hyderabad
3. Alliance University, Bangalore
4. VIT School of Law
5. Amity Law School, Noida
For more information about CLAT: CLAT 2025
Hope this answer helps! Thank You!!!
Hi dear candidate,
Your rank of 4032 in CLAT exam with EWS appears to be insufficient for admission in IP University colleges as the category wise cut off for IPU colleges is lower than your rank at least for the top tier colleges like VIPS and MAIMS.
The majority of seats are reserved for students with Delhi domicile in IPU colleges and if you belong to outside Delhi then, it's slightly difficult.
However, some colleges like Trinity (TIIPS) in Dwarka accepted admissions for Law at higher rank of around 8,000 so you might also have a chance there.
Otherwise, you can find top Law colleges in Delhi NCR at our official website:
Law Colleges in Delhi NCR 2025 – Courses, Fees, Admission, Rank
BEST REGARDS
Hello Aspirant,
The CLAT (Common Law Admission Test) exam consists of five subjects which are given below:-
1. English Language
2. Current Affairs, including General Knowledge
3.Legal Reasoning
4. Logical Reasoning
5. Quantitative Techniques (Basic Mathematics)
And
These subjects are tested in one single paper with 120 multiple-choice questions for UG CLAT (as per the latest pattern from 2024 onwards). Each question carries 1 mark, and there's a 0.25 negative mark for every incorrect answer.
With an All India SC category rank of 1561 in CLAT, you have a strong chance of getting admission into several National Law Universities through the counselling rounds. Based on past year trends, this rank can fetch you a seat in NLUs like NLIU Bhopal, HNLU Raipur, RGNUL Patiala, and possibly even higher-ranked ones like WBNUJS Kolkata or NLU Jodhpur depending on how cutoffs move in the later rounds.
SC category cutoffs for top NLUs tend to vary each year, but many of them have admitted students with SC ranks between 1500 and 3000, especially in rounds 2 and 3. Your chances increase further if you list a wide range of NLUs in your preference order during counselling. Also, make sure to complete all required counselling steps, document verification, and preference locking on time to avoid missing out.
With your rank, you're well-positioned to get a seat—just stay active in the admission process and keep checking updates from the CLAT consortium.
A lawyer advises clients on legal matters, represents them in court, and drafts legal documents. They work in various fields like criminal, corporate, or family law. Key skills include communication, research, and analytical thinking. To become a lawyer in India, one must complete a law degree, clear entrance exams, register with the Bar Council, and pass the All India Bar Examination.
A civil lawyer handles non-criminal legal disputes like family, property, and contract issues. They represent clients in court, draft documents, and advise on legal rights. To practice in India, one needs an LLB degree and Bar Council enrollment. Civil lawyers work in firms, government, or independently, with growing demand across various specialisations.
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