CLAT 2027 Official Mock Test Solutions - Section-Wise Answers of November 10 Test

CLAT 2027 Official Mock Test Solution: Current Affairs & GK

The CLAT 2027 official mock test with solutions for the current affairs and GK section is given below. 

Passage I 

When we hear the name SPACE, only one organization comes to mind: the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO). The Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO), located in Bengaluru, is the country’s first space agency. ISRO was founded in 1969 with the goal of developing and utilizing space technology for national development while also conducting planetary exploration and space science research. The space research operations began in India in the early 1960s, at a time when satellite applications were still in the experimental stages in the United States. Dr. Vikram Sarabhai, the founding father of India's space programme, rapidly recognized the benefits of space technologies after the live transmission of the Tokyo Olympic Games across the Pacific by the American satellite “Syncom-3” demonstrated the power of communication satellites. ISRO has launched various spacecraft like Chandrayaan, Astrosat, Microsat, GSAT, etc. The Government of India has also approved a regional spaceborne navigation system, which will consist of seven satellites. Out of these, four of them will be placed in geosynchronous inclined orbit of 29° relative to the equatorial plane, Such an arrangement would mean all seven satellites would have continuous radio visibility with Indian control stations.

Q1. Name the first dedicated mission launched by ISRO for studying the celestial sources in X-ray, optical and UV spectral bands simultaneously 

(a) Amazonia 

(b) Astrosat 

(c) Gaganyaan - 1 

(d) Lunar Polar Exploration Mission 

Answer -  B (Astrosat)

Q2. APPLE, the first communication satellite of ISRO, was launched from: 

(a) Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota 

(b) TERLS, Thiruvananthapuram 

(c) Kourou, French Guiana 

(d) SSLV Launching Station, Tamil Nadu 

Answer - C (Kourou, French Guiana) 

Q3. Name the spacecraft that has been successfully sent into space to probe the planets in the solar system: 

(a) Sputnik 19 

(b) Cosmos 482 

(c) Pioneer-E 

(d) Mariner 10 

Answer - D (Mariner 10)

Q4. The first successful Nuclear Bomb test conducted by India in 1974 is called the: 

(a) Prithvi

(b) Pokhran-II 

(c) Smiling Buddha 

(d) Suya 

Answer - C (Smiling Buddha)

Q5. NaviC covers India and the region extending: 

(a) 1,500 Km 

(b) 2,000 Km 

(c) 7,000 Km 

(d) 1,000 Km 

Answer - A (1,500 Km)

Passage II. 

Former Governor of a State and National Democratic Alliance (NDA) candidate Droupadi Murmu was elected the 15th President of India, the first tribal woman to be elected to the position and the youngest as well. She was declared elected on Thursday after four rounds of counting, although she had crossed the halfway mark after the third round of counting itself, posting an unassailable lead over her rival and the Opposition’s candidate, who conceded the election thereafter. Prime Minister Narendra Modi was the first to greet Ms. Murmu at her residence in New Delhi after the third round of counting showed that she had crossed the halfway mark. Ms. Murmu hails from the Santhal tribe and was born in the district of Mayurbhanj, coming up the hard way in life, graduating and teaching in Odisha before entering electoral politics at the local body level and later being elected MLA and serving as a Minister in the Biju Janata Dal-BJP coalition government from 2000 to 2004. She remained an MLA till 2009, representing Rairangpur in Odisha, a town that burst into celebrations when her name was announced as a candidate for the post of President of India. She was known to intervene in stopping amendments to the Chota Nagpur Tenancy Act that was being brought in by the BJP government of Raghubar Das, which involved changing land use in tribal areas, 

Q1. Before Droupadi Murmu, India had only one other female president, Pratibha Patil. When did Patil serve as the President of India? 

(a) 2007-2012 

(b) 2005-2010 

(c) 2012-2017 

(d) 2006-2011 

Answer - A (2007-2012)

Q2. President Murmu has earlier served as a Governor of which State? 

(a) Odisha 

(b) Bihar 

(c) Jharkhand 

(d) West Bengal

Answer - C (Jharkhand) 

Q3. The first presidential election was held by the Election Commission in which year? 

(a) 1952 

(b) 1950 

(c) 1948 

(d) 1949 

Answer - A (1952) 

Q4. The Rashtrapati Bhavan was formerly known as the Viceroy’s Palace (during colonial times). Where did the Governor General reside before the transfer of the British capital to Delhi in 1911? 

(a) Belvedere House 

(b) Raisina Palace 

(c) Secretariat Building 

(d) Writers’ Building 

Answer - A (Belvedere House)

Q5. Who among the following was a candidate in the elections for the Vice President of India in 2022? 

(a) R. Venkataraman 

(b) Yashwant Sinha 

(c) M. Venkaiah Naidu 

(d) Margaret Alva 

Answer - D (Margaret Alva)

Passage III. 

The Election Commission of India is a constitutional body responsible for conducting elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of the President and Vice-President. Article 324 of the Constitution vests in the Commission the superintendence, direction and control of elections. The Commission was established on 25 January 1950, a date now observed as National Voters’ Day. The Commission’s role extends beyond announcing polling dates. It prepares and supervises electoral rolls, recognises political parties, allots election symbols, and monitors compliance with election rules. During elections, the Model Code of Conduct guides political parties and candidates in their public behaviour and campaign practices. The Code is intended to promote a level playing field, although it is not itself a statute. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners are appointed by the President of India under the applicable constitutional and statutory framework. The institution is designed to function independently so that elections are conducted fairly. Its effectiveness, however, also depends on citizens participating responsibly, political actors respecting the rules, and public confidence in the electoral process. 

Q1. Which Article of the Constitution vests control of elections in the Election Commission? 

(a) Article 280

(b) Article 324 

(c) Article 356 

(d) Article 368 

Answer: B (Article 324)

Q2. National Voters’ Day is observed on: 

(a) 15 August 

(b) 26 January 

(c) 25 January 
(d) 2 October 

Answer - C (25 January)

Q3. Which of the following is a function of the Election Commission? 

(a) Conducting judicial review 

(b) Recognising political parties and allotting symbols 

(c) Making laws for Parliament 

(d) Appointing Governors 

Answer - B (Recognising political parties and allotting symbols )

Q4. The Model Code of Conduct is described in the passage as: 

(a) A constitutional amendment 

(b) A criminal code 

(c) Guidance for election conduct, not itself a statute 

(d) A rule applicable only to voters 

Answer - C (Guidance for election conduct, not itself a statute) 

Q5. According to the passage, fair elections also depend on: 

(a) Citizens’ responsible participation and political actors respecting rules 

(b) The absence of political parties 

(c) Only the announcement of polling dates 

(d) Courts conducting all elections

Answer - A (Citizens’ responsible participation and political actors respecting rules )

Passage IV. 

Digital payments have changed the way many Indians transfer money and make purchases. The Unified Payments Interface (UPI), developed by the National Payments Corporation of India, enables instant transfers between bank accounts through participating applications. It
allows users to send or receive money using identifiers such as a UPI ID, and it has become an important part of India’s retail payment ecosystem. A key feature of UPI is interoperability: users of different participating banks and applications can transact with one another. This reduces dependence on a single payment provider. The system operates through the banking network and payment infrastructure, rather than functioning as a separate store of money. A UPI transaction generally moves funds between bank accounts. The expansion of digital payments also raises concerns. Users must guard against phishing, fraudulent requests, and the sharing of PINs or one-time passwords. A UPI PIN is used to authorise a payment; it should not be disclosed to another person. Digital inclusion also requires reliable connectivity, accessible interfaces and awareness among users. Technology can make payments convenient, but safety and informed use remain essential.

Q1. UPI was developed by:
(a) Reserve Bank of India alone
(b) National Payments Corporation of India
(c) Securities and Exchange Board of India
(d) Ministry of Commerce

Answer: B
Q2. The passage identifies interoperability as the ability to:
(a) Use only one payment application
(b) Transact across participating banks and applications
(c) Make payments without a bank account
(d) Avoid all transaction authentication

Answer: B
Q3. A UPI transaction generally transfers funds:
(a) From one bank account to another
(b) Into a separate UPI wallet in every case
(c) Directly from the government

(d) Only between credit cards

Answer: A
Q4. Which detail should never be disclosed to another person?
(a) UPI ID
(b) Bank name
(c) UPI PIN
(d) Transaction date

Answer: C
Q5. The passage’s main message about digital payments is that:
(a) They are unsafe and should be discontinued
(b) Convenience must be accompanied by security awareness and inclusion
(c) They work only for large purchases
(d) They remove the need for banks

Answer: B

Passage V. 

Wetlands are ecosystems in which water plays a central role, including marshes, lakes, estuaries and certain coastal areas. They support biodiversity, provide habitats for birds and other wildlife, and help regulate water systems. Wetlands can also reduce the effects of floods, store carbon, and support livelihoods such as fishing. The Ramsar Convention is an international treaty adopted in 1971 in the Iranian city of Ramsar. It provides a framework for the conservation and “wise use” of wetlands. A wetland designated as a Ramsar Site is recognised as being of international importance. The designation does not mean that all human activity is automatically prohibited; rather, it encourages conservation and sustainable management. Wetlands face pressures from drainage, pollution, encroachment and changes in water flow. Their protection therefore requires more than listing sites. It involves maintaining ecological character, planning land use carefully and working with local communities. Since wetlands connect water, wildlife and human livelihoods, their conservation is both an environmental concern and a matter of sustainable development.

Q1. The Ramsar Convention was adopted in:
(a) 1969
(b) 1971
(c) 1982

(d) 1992

Answer: B

Q2. The Convention is named after a city in:
(a) India
(b) Iran
(c) Iraq
(d) Egypt

Answer: B

Q3. A Ramsar Site is a wetland recognised as:
(a) A site of international importance
(b) A place where human activity is completely prohibited
(c) A privately owned water body
(d) A site used only for tourism

Answer: A

Q4. Which is identified as a pressure on wetlands?
(a) Pollution and encroachment
(b) Increased biodiversity
(c) Sustainable land use
(d) Community participation

Answer: A

Q5. The passage suggests wetland conservation requires:
(a) Only international designation
(b) Excluding local communities
(c) Sustainable management and careful land
-use planning
(d) Draining wetlands to prevent floods

Answer: C

Passage VI

The Constitution of India sets out Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy, and it also contains Fundamental Duties. The duties were added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, following recommendations associated with the Swaran Singh Committee. They are listed in Part IVA, under Article 51A.

Fundamental Duties include respecting the Constitution, the National Flag and the National Anthem; cherishing the ideals of the freedom struggle; protecting the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India; and promoting harmony. Citizens are also called upon to protect the natural environment, develop scientific temper and safeguard public property. A further duty relating to education was added by the 86th Amendment Act, 2002.

Unlike Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties are generally not directly enforceable by courts in the same manner. Nevertheless, they can guide civic conduct and inform laws and judicial interpretation. The duties express the idea that citizenship involves not only claims against the State but also responsibilities towards society and the country.

Q1. Fundamental Duties are listed in:

A. Part II
B. Part III
C. Part IVA
D. Part V

Answer: C

Q2. They were introduced by which Constitutional Amendment?

A. 24th Amendment
B. 42nd Amendment
C. 44th Amendment
D. 86th Amendment

Answer: B

Q3. The Article containing Fundamental Duties is:

A. Article 14
B. Article 21
C. Article 32
D. Article 51A

Answer: D

Q4. Which amendment added a duty relating to education?

A. 42nd Amendment
B. 44th Amendment
C. 73rd Amendment
D. 86th Amendment

Answer: D

Q5. According to the passage, Fundamental Duties:

A. Are generally directly enforceable like Fundamental Rights
B. Can guide civic conduct and legal interpretation
C. Apply only to government officials
D. Replace Fundamental Rights

Answer: B

CLAT Maths Questions With Answers

Passage 1 - A survey of daily wages among agricultural labourers in four states recorded the following average wages. In State A, male labourers earned ₹420 per day and female labourers earned ₹315. In State B, the corresponding figures were ₹500 and ₹350. In State C, men earned ₹640 while women earned ₹480. In State D, men earned ₹360, and women earned ₹324. The survey also found that 2,000 male and 1,500 female agricultural labourers were employed in State A, while State B employed 1,200 male and 1,800 female labourers. For the purpose of the following questions, assume these figures are accurate and that each labourer works 25 days in a month.

 (Q111–115) Given Data (Simplification of Passage)

Number of labourers: State A: 2,000 male and 1,500 female. State B: 1,200 male and 1,800 female.

Assumption: each labourer works 25 days in a month.

Question 111: State with the highest percentage difference between male and female daily wages

Method: Percentage difference = (Male wage − Female wage) ÷ Male wage × 100. Male wage is taken as the base.

• State A: (420 − 315) ÷ 420 × 100 = 105 ÷ 420 × 100 = 25%

• State B: (500 − 350) ÷ 500 × 100 = 150 ÷ 500 × 100 = 30%

• State C: (640 − 480) ÷ 640 × 100 = 160 ÷ 640 × 100 = 25%

• State D: (360 − 324) ÷ 360 × 100 = 36 ÷ 360 × 100 = 10%

State B has the highest gap.

Cross-check with female wage as the base: A = 33.3%, B = 42.9%, C = 33.3%, D = 11.1%. State B is still the highest, so the answer does not depend on which base is used.

Answer: (B) State B

Question 112: Monthly wage of a female labourer in State C

• Daily wage of a woman in State C = ₹480

• Days worked = 25

• Monthly wage = 480 × 25 = ₹12,000

Answer: (C) ₹12,000

Question 113: Total daily wage paid to all male labourers in State A

• Number of male labourers = 2,000

• Daily wage per male labourer = ₹420

• Total daily wage = 2,000 × 420 = ₹8,40,000

Answer: (B) ₹8,40,000

Question 114: Ratio of total daily wages of female to male labourers in State B

• Total for females = 1,800 × 350 = ₹6,30,000

• Total for males = 1,200 × 500 = ₹6,00,000

• Ratio = 6,30,000 : 6,00,000 = 630 : 600

• Dividing both by 30: 21 : 20

Answer: (A) 21 : 20

Question 115: New daily wage of female labourers in State D after a 10% increase

• Current wage = ₹324

• Increase = 10% of 324 = ₹32.40

• New wage = 324 + 32.40 = ₹356.40

Alternatively: 324 × 1.10 = 356.40.

Answer: (C) ₹356.40

CLAT 2027 Official Mock Test: Important Instructions

• The CLAT official mock tests are available for both UG and PG.

• CLAT 2027 mock tests are designed exclusively for self-assessment and practice.

• Candidates can attempt the CLAT official mock test as many times as required.

• Official mock tests must not be considered the final CLAT exam paper.

• The format, structure, difficulty level, questions, and subjects of the CLAT 2027 mock tests are only indicative. 

• Candidates should use the CLAT 2027 official mock tests to evaluate their preparation, improve time management, and identify topics that need further revision.

The actual CLAT 2027 will be conducted in offline mode, unlike the online mock test on December 6, 2026.