The Constitutional Law section in CLAT 2026 is one of the most important and scoring areas, as a large number of passages and questions are directly rooted in constitutional principles, fundamental rights, landmark judgments, and key provisions. Over the years, CLAT Previous year papers have consistently repeated themes from core Articles, doctrines, and significant Supreme Court rulings.
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Since Constitutional Law forms the backbone of the CLAT 2026 Legal Reasoning section, identifying high-frequency topics becomes essential for effective preparation. This article compiles the most commonly asked CLAT Constitutional Law PYQs, Articles, recurring concepts, and landmark judgments based on previous year questions (PYQs), helping aspirants strengthen their preparation and improve their performance in the Common Law Admission Test (CLAT) 2026.
The Constitution of India is the single most important subject in CLAT 2026, consistently contributing 20–25% of the entire CLAT 2026 exam pattern. Questions are direct, factual, and largely repeated from CLAT Constitutional Law PYQs.
1. How is online defamation described in the passage?
A. Any false statement published offline
B. A statement harming a person’s reputation on digital platforms
C. A criminal offence under IPC only
D. A legal right protected under IT Act
Explanation: Online defamation specifically refers to false or harmful statements made on digital platforms that damage a person’s reputation.
2. What is the significance of Section 79 of the Information Technology Act, 2000?
A. It criminalises online speech
B. It provides immunity to intermediaries for third-party content under certain conditions
C. It protects only government websites
D. It bans defamatory posts on social media
Explanation: Section 79 grants “safe harbor” protection to intermediaries (like social media platforms) from liability for third-party content, provided they act as per rules and remove unlawful content when notified.
3. The PRP Bill defines “specified authority” as:
A. Chief Justice of India
B. District Magistrate
C. Prime Minister
D. Press Council of India
Explanation: For regulatory purposes, the “specified authority” in the PRP Bill is the District Magistrate who oversees registration and compliance of periodicals.
4. In Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, the Supreme Court held that:
A. Section 66A of the IT Act is constitutional
B. Section 66A of the IT Act is unconstitutional for being vague and overbroad
C. Only offline defamation is punishable
D. Freedom of expression has no restrictions online
Explanation: The Supreme Court struck down Section 66A, stating it violated Article 19(1)(a) by being vague and overbroad, threatening free speech online.
5. How does the Indian legal system balance the Right to Freedom of Expression?
A. By allowing unlimited speech without any restriction
B. By restricting all online content
C. By imposing reasonable restrictions under Article 19(2) for public order, decency, or morality
D. By allowing courts to ignore defamatory content
Explanation: Article 19(1)(a) grants freedom of speech, but Article 19(2) allows “reasonable restrictions” for public order, decency, morality, etc., balancing rights and responsibilities.
6. What must a plaintiff prove about a defamatory statement in India?
A. The statement is true
B. The statement harms their reputation
C. The statement was made in private
D. The statement was made by a government official
Explanation: In defamation cases, the plaintiff must show that the statement was published and caused reputational harm. Truth is a defense, not a requirement to prove.
7. What is the role of intermediaries in the context of online defamation cases?
A. They are always liable for defamatory content
B. They must remove content upon receiving a notice to retain immunity under Section 79
C. They decide the constitutionality of content
D. They can ignore all complaints
Explanation: Intermediaries are protected from liability if they act promptly to remove unlawful content once notified. Failure to do so can attract liability.
8. The PRP Bill defines “newspaper” as:
A. Any digital blog
B. A periodical of loose-folded sheets published at regular intervals
C. Only daily newspapers
D. Social media posts
Explanation: The Press and Registration of Periodicals (PRP) Bill specifies a “newspaper” as a periodical publication, traditionally printed, and not social media content.
9. Who among the following is NOT eligible to publish a newspaper under the PRP Bill?
A. A citizen of India
B. A minor below 18 years
C. A person declared of unsound mind
D. All of the above
Explanation: The PRP Bill restricts publication to persons who are legally competent—minors and those of unsound mind are disqualified.
10. Which of the following is a threat to the freedom of press?
A. Government-imposed censorship without procedure
B. Publication of truthful news
C. Independent editorial policies
D. Freedom to circulate newspapers
Explanation: Arbitrary government censorship or restrictions without due procedure threaten press freedom, which is otherwise implied under Article 19(1)(a).
Below is a detailed list of the most repeated Constitutional Law landmark judgments for CLAT. These cases are frequently asked across CLAT UG passages and questions because they form the backbone of Indian constitutional jurisprudence.
Landmark judgments | Year | Core Issue | Principle Laid Down | Why Important for CLAT important? |
Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala | 1973 | Scope of Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution under Art 368 | Introduced the Basic Structure Doctrine; Parliament cannot destroy basic features | Most frequently asked case in CLAT; foundation of constitutional amendments |
Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India | 1978 | Passport impounded without reasons; scope of Article 21 | Expanded Article 21; “procedure” must be fair, just, reasonable; interlinked Art. 14, 19, 21 | Major case on personal liberty; often tested with Art. 21 questions |
A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras | 1950 | Preventive detention and narrow interpretation of FRs | Fundamental Rights are separate; Art. 21 requires only “procedure established by law” | Important because later overruled by Maneka Gandhi |
Minerva Mills v. Union of India | 1980 | Validity of 42nd Amendment giving unlimited amendment power | Power to amend is limited; balance of FRs and DPSPs is part of Basic Structure | Repeated case for Basic Structure and Art. 368 limitations |
Golaknath v. State of Punjab | 1967 | Can Parliament amend Fundamental Rights? | Parliament cannot amend Fundamental Rights; amendments = “law” under Art 13 | Important because it triggered constitutional crisis; foundation for Basic Structure debate |
S.R. Bommai v. Union of India | 1994 | Misuse of President’s Rule (Art. 356) | Judicial review allowed; Federalism & secularism are part of Basic Structure | Commonly asked in passages on federalism and emergency |
Indra Sawhney v. Union of India (Mandal Case) | 1992 | Validity of OBC reservation | 27% OBC reservation upheld; creamy layer introduced; 50% cap on reservation | Very frequent case under equality, Art. 14–16 |
I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu | 2007 | Immunity of Ninth Schedule from judicial review | Laws inserted after 1973 can be reviewed if they violate Basic Structure | Important for judicial review and Ninth Schedule questions |
Keshavan Madhava Menon v. State of Bombay | 1951 | Retrospective criminal laws under Article 20 | No retrospective criminal liability; protection under Art. 20(1) strengthened | Standard question on interpretation of Art. 20 |
Shreya Singhal v. Union of India | 2015 | Constitutionality of IT Act Section 66A | Section 66A struck down; protected online free speech; Art. 19(1)(a) strengthened | Very popular in recent CLATs due to digital rights |
Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India | 2018 | Decriminalisation of homosexuality (Sec. 377) | Struck down part of Sec. 377; recognised dignity & privacy of LGBTQ+ community | Often comes in passages on equality, privacy, dignity |
Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India | 2017 | Whether privacy is a fundamental right | Declared Right to Privacy as a fundamental right under Art. 21 | Highly expected in modern legal reasoning |
Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan | 1997 | No law on sexual harassment at workplace | Laid down Vishaka Guidelines using CEDAW; linked to Articles |
A quick revision sheet covering key Constitutional Law topics for CLAT 2026, including Freedom of Speech, online defamation, Shreya Singhal case, and press regulations. Designed for last-minute prep with short explanations and high-yield CLAT Constitutional Law PYQs.
Topic | Articles | Key Judgments | Tip |
Fundamental Rights | 12–35 | Kesavananda Bharati v. Kerala, Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India, Olga Tellis, Right to Education (21A) | Focus on FRs enforcement, limitations, scope |
Directive Principles (DPSPs) | 36–51 | Minerva Mills v. Union of India | Know conflict with FRs, classification |
Amendment / Basic Structure | 13, 368 | Kesavananda Bharati, Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain | Concept of “Basic Structure” is crucial |
Preamble | N/A | N/A | Features, significance, relation to FRs & DPSPs |
Centre-State Relations / Federalism | 245–263 | S.R. Bommai v. Union of India | Distribution of powers, emergency impact |
Emergency Provisions | 352–360 | A.K. Gopalan, S.R. Bommai | Suspension of FRs, duration & types of emergency |
Judiciary & Judicial Review | 124–147, 32, 226 | Kesavananda Bharati, Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain | Supreme Court & High Court powers, writs |
President & Parliament | 52–78, 79–122 | S.R. Bommai | Powers, impeachment, legislative process |
Constitutional Bodies | 323–323B | N/A | Election Commission, UPSC, CAG, Finance Commission |
Fundamental Duties | 51A | N/A | Link with FRs; moral/legal reasoning |
Important Amendments / Contemporary Issues | 42nd, 44th, 73rd, 74th, 86th, 101st, 103rd | Right to Education, Panchayati Raj, Reservation policies | Short, direct questions; quick scoring |
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