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The All India Bar Examination (AIBE) 2025, conducted by the Bar Council of India (BCI), is a national licensing exam that tests a law graduate’s conceptual clarity and practical understanding of core legal subjects. Among these, the Constitution of India is the most heavily weighted, with nearly every AIBE 20 paper featuring direct and repeated questions from Articles, amendments, and landmark judgments.
The AIBE 2025 cutoff, or qualifying percentile, is 45% (typically 42 marks out of 100) for General and OBC candidates, and 40% (typically 37 marks out of 100) for SC, ST, and PwD candidates.
Since clearing AIBE 20, 2025 is mandatory to obtain the AIBE Certificate of Practice (COP) and begin practising in Indian courts, understanding trends within Constitution-based questions becomes crucial. This article compiles the most frequently asked Constitutional Articles, important case laws, and high-yield concepts based on previous year questions, helping aspirants in AIBE 20 preparation and score higher in the exam.
The Constitution of India is the single most important subject in AIBE, consistently contributing 20–25% of the entire AIBE 20 exam pattern. Questions are direct, factual, and largely repeated from previous years.
1. Which of the following case may be considered as the first report on the state of Pilibhit, India?
Correct Answer: (B) Hussainara Khatoon v. Union of India
Explanation: Hussainara Khatoon v. Union of India is considered the first report on the state of Pilibhit, India.
2. Who among the following is considered as the father of PIL in India?
Correct Answer: (B) Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer
Explanation: Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer is widely regarded as the father of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in India.
3. Against which of the following a PIL cannot be filed?
Correct Answer: (B) Against Central Government
Explanation: Public Interest Litigation can be filed against the Central Government, State Governments, and private parties.
4. In which of the following landmark cases was it held that Principles of Natural Justice are applicable not only to judicial and quasi-judicial functions, but also to administrative functions?
Correct Answer: (D) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
Explanation: In Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India, the Supreme Court held that the principles of natural justice are applicable to administrative actions that affect the rights of individuals.
5. In which of the following judgments the Supreme Court had comprehensively reconsidered S.P. Sampath Kumar v. Union of India case?
Correct Answer: (A) J.B. Chopra v. Union of India
Explanation: J.B. Chopra v. Union of India comprehensively reconsidered the principles laid down in S.P. Sampath Kumar v. Union of India regarding the scope of judicial review of administrative actions.
6. Which of the following provision of the Constitution of India states that no tax can be levied or collected except by authority of law?
Correct Answer: (D) Article 265
Explanation: Article 265 of the Constitution of India states that no tax can be levied or collected except by authority of law.
7. Which of the following is a landmark case on the public trust doctrine in India?
Correct Answer: (C) Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action v Union of India
Explanation: The Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action v Union of India case is considered a landmark case on the public trust doctrine, which holds that certain natural resources, like air, water, and forests, are held in trust by the government for the benefit of the public and must be protected.
8. The concept of freedom of trade and commerce mentioned in the Indian Constitution is motivated from the experience of which of the following country?
Correct Answer: (D) United Kingdom
Explanation: The concept of freedom of trade and commerce in the Indian Constitution is largely influenced by the British experience, as India was a British colony.
9. Which of the following writ is issued to enforce the performance of public duties by the authority?
Correct Answer: (A) Mandamus
Explanation: Mandamus is a writ issued by a court to compel a public authority to perform a mandatory duty.
10. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Act had made the provision for publishing Hindi Translation of the Constitution?
Correct Answer: (B) 54th Amendment
Explanation: The 54th Amendment Act introduced provisions for the publication of the Constitution in Hindi.
11. Which of the following is the landmark judgment on the Colourable legislation?
Correct Answer: (A) State of Bihar v Kameshwar Singh
Explanation: State of Bihar v Kameshwar Singh is a landmark case where the Supreme Court dealt with the concept of colourable legislation, which is when a government adopts a seemingly valid law to achieve an unconstitutional purpose.
12. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Act was passed in light of the advisory opinion received in Re Berubari case?
Correct Answer: (C) The Constitution (Ninth Amendment) Act, 1960
Explanation: The Constitution (Ninth Amendment) Act, 1960 was passed in light of the advisory opinion received in the Re Berubari Union case, which dealt with the territorial jurisdiction of India and Bangladesh.
13. Which of the following provision of the Constitution of India is relevant for solving questions of repugnancy between a Central law and a State law?
Correct Answer: (C) Article 254
Explanation: Article 254 of the Constitution of India deals with the issue of repugnancy between Central and State laws.It provides that if a State law is inconsistent with a Central law, the Central law shall prevail and the State law shall be void to the extent of such inconsistency.
14. What transition period was provided in the Constitution of India for changing official language of Union from English to Hindi?
Correct Answer: (B) 10 years
Explanation: The Constitution of India provided for a transition period of 10 years for the official language of the Union to be changed from English to Hindi. This period was later extended.
15. In which of the following case it was held that there could be no reservation on single post in the cadre?
Correct Answer: (A) Chakradhar Paswan v State of Bihar
Explanation: In Chakradhar Paswan v State of Bihar, the Supreme Court held that there could be no reservation on a single post in a cadre, as it would be discriminatory against other candidates who were not eligible for reservation.
16. Sexual harassment of a working woman at her place of work may also be considered as the violation of which of the following provision of the Constitution of India?
Correct Answer: (C) Article 19(1)(e)
Explanation: Article 19(1)(e) of the Constitution of India guarantees the right to practice any profession or occupation.Sexual harassment at the workplace can interfere with a woman's right to practice her profession, making it a violation of this article.
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Over the past decade, the Constitution of India has consistently been the most important and highest-weightage subject in the AIBE exam. Every year:
20–25% of the paper comes directly from the Constitution.
Out of 100 questions, 20–25 questions are purely Article-based, case law–based, or concept-based.
Most questions are straightforward — not tricky, not analytical.
A majority of the questions can be answered if you know:
The number of the Article
Which Article deals with what
Important case laws linked with FRs, DPSPs, amendments
Schedules & amendments and their purpose
This is why students who revise the Constitution properly can easily score 20+ marks from this section alone, making it a high-return area of preparation.
Topic | Why It Appears Every Year | What You Should Focus On |
Fundamental Rights (12–35) | Most tested area in the Constitution. | Definition of State, Art. 14–21, Remedies, Liberty cases. |
Amendments | Direct, factual, very scoring. | 42nd, 44th, 52nd, 61st Amendments. |
Preamble | Short but extremely important. | Meaning of keywords, Kesavananda ruling. |
Case Laws | AIBE repeats famous cases. | Maneka Gandhi, Minerva Mills, ADM Jabalpur, Kesavananda. |
Constitutional Bodies | Always 2–3 questions. | Election Commission, UPSC, CAG, and Finance Commission. |
Centre–State Relations | List-based questions are predictable. | Union/State/Concurrent Lists & Emergency effects. |
Memorise the text, exceptions and one short note for each of these Articles — they’re frequently tested in MCQ/fact sets:
Article 14: Equality before law / reasonable classification.
Article 19: Freedom of speech & expression and reasonable restrictions.
Article 21: Right to life & personal liberty (procedural + substantive).
Article 32 / 226: Writ jurisdiction (remedies and locus).
Article 368: Amendment procedure (basic structure issues).
Article 356: President’s Rule (federalism, tests for misuse).
Directive Principles (Part IV): nature and conflicts with FRs.
Articles on distribution of legislative powers (Schedules/Lists, residuary).
Memorise the ratio plus one-line application — these recur in AIBE fact-sets:
Kesavananda Bharati (1973) — Basic Structure.
Maneka Gandhi (1978) — Expanded Article 21; procedure + reasonableness.
SR Bommai (1994) — Limits on Article 356; secularism & Centre’s power.
ADM Jabalpur / Habeas Corpus context (know the controversy). I.R. Coelho (2007) — Ninth Schedule and judicial review. Olga Tellis / Right to Livelihood (Article 21 scope). T.N. Godavarman (environment/PIL) — locus, environmental protection.
Other frequently cited short ones: Golaknath, Kesavananda relatives, Indira Nehru Gandhi (Electoral law), and landmark federalism cases.
1. Fundamental Rights (Most Dominant Area)
Workplace harassment & Art. 19
Reservation & equality (Art. 16)
Religious rights conflicts (Art. 25 & 26)
2. Centre–State Legislative Relations
Article 254
Colourable legislation
Repugnancy
3. Constitutional Remedies & Writs
Mandamus asked multiple times
Habeas corpus & Certiorari (common in past papers)
4. Constitutional History & Borrowed Features
Sources like UK, USA, Australia
Language provisions (Art. 343)
Amendments related to language and territory
5. Environmental Constitutionalism
Article 21 interpretation
Public trust doctrine
Environmental case-law-based FR expansion
On Question asked by student community
Hello,
The above link provides you with the AIBE questions with answers that enhance your preparation.
Hope it helps with your query. Good luck.
Hello,
You can access AIBE (All India Bar Examination) previous year question papers with answers in Hindi from the mentioned link below:
https://law.careers360.com/hi/articles/aibe-previous-year-question-papers
Hope it helps.
Hello,
Here you can access AIBE 20 exam which was held on 30 November 2025 answer key set-wise A, B, C, D from the mentioned link below:
https://law.careers360.com/articles/aibe-20-answer-key-2025-pdf-all-india-bar-examination
Hope it helps.
Hello,
You can get the AIBE SET-B Question Paper along with answer keys from the Careers360 website. Practising these papers will helps you to understand the exam pattern, to identify the important topics, to improve time management, and overall it enhances your exam preparation.
LINK: https://law.careers360.com/articles/aibe-20-set-b-question-paper-pdf
Hope it helps!
Hello,
The AIBE 20 (2025) provisional result has not yet been declared. The provisional result/answer key will be available soon.
For more access below mentioned link:
https://law.careers360.com/articles/aibe-20-result-2025-date
Hope it helps.
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