AIBE 20 SET A Question Paper PDF (OUT) with Solutions - Download Here

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AIBE 20 SET A 2025 Exam Analysis

The AIBE exam pattern may vary slightly every year. However, the general structure of SET A remains consistent:

AIBE 20 SET A Difficulty Level Analysis

The exam was moderate in difficulty with a strong emphasis on the new criminal law codes (BNS, BNSS, BSA), which together formed the largest portion of the paper. Many questions were direct, factual, and number-based, especially those dealing with compensation limits, timelines, penalties, and notice periods. Constitutional Law, Consumer Law, and Taxation were comparatively easier and scoring, relying mostly on straightforward Articles, definitions, and standard numerical limits. Procedural subjects like CPC and Arbitration contained trickier questions requiring careful reading of the Bare Acts.

AIBE 20 SET A Subject-Wise Distribution

AIBE 20 SET A Section-wise Questions with Detailed Solutions

1. Under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, when can facts that are otherwise irrelevant be considered relevant?

(A) Only when they prove the guilt of the accused directly

(B) Only when they form part of a dying declaration

(C) When they are inconsistent with a fact in issue or a relevant fact

(D) When they are part of an admission made in writing

Correct Answer: (C) When they are inconsistent with a fact in issue or a relevant fact

Explanation: Under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, facts that are otherwise irrelevant may become relevant if they are inconsistent with a fact in issue or a relevant fact (Section 11). Such facts help in disproving or contradicting the main issue, thereby gaining evidentiary value.

2. What condition must be satisfied for prior evidence to be relevant under Section 33 Act, 1872?

(A) The evidence must have been recorded in the presence of a jury.

(B) The proceeding was between the same parties or their representatives in interest.

(C) The evidence must have been published in a government gazette.

(D) The evidence must have been corroborated by expert opinion.

Correct Answer: (B) The proceeding was between the same parties or their representatives in interest

Explanation: Section 33 allows prior evidence to be relevant if:

• The earlier proceeding involved the same parties or their representatives, and

• The adverse party had the right and opportunity to cross-examine.

Thus, option (B) captures the essential requirement.

3. During a court trial, the defence lawyer objects to the admissibility of certain papers produced as evidence. The judge clarifies that only documents categorised as public documents under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, can be accepted without strict proof. Which category of documents would fall under public documents in this context?

(A) Draft agreements between individuals

(B) Personal diaries of government officials

(C) Internal notes of a private company

(D) Judicial and executive acts of public officers

Correct Answer: (D) Judicial and executive acts of public officers

Explanation: As per Sections 74–75 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, public documents include:

• Acts or records of sovereign authorities

• Official bodies and tribunals

• Public officers (judicial and executive acts)

Private documents like drafts, diaries, or company notes are not public documents.

4. Which condition must be satisfied for things said or done by one conspirator to be admissible against others under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

(A) The statement must be made after the conspiracy has ended

(B) The statement must involve unrelated matters of personal benefit

(C) There must be reasonable grounds to believe a conspiracy exists

(D) There must be proof that each conspirator personally committed the act

Correct Answer: (C) There must be reasonable grounds to believe a conspiracy exists

Explanation: Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, acts/statements of one conspirator are admissible against others only when there is prima facie evidence (reasonable grounds) of conspiracy. This reflects the principle earlier found in Section 10 of the Evidence Act.

5. As per Section 30 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, if a Magistrate sentences a person to two years imprisonment and a fine, what is the maximum imprisonment he may impose in default of payment of the fine?

(A) 1 year

(B) 2 years

(C) 6 months

(D) 3 months

Correct Answer: (C) 6 months

Explanation: Under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, if a Magistrate imposes:

• Imprisonment up to 2 years,

• Then default imprisonment for non-payment of fine cannot exceed 1/4th of the maximum term.

Here: 1/4 of 2 years = 6 months

6. As per the Constitution of India, after the 86th Constitutional Amendment, which directive principle was modified to ensure early childhood care and education below the age of six?

(A) Article 39

(B) Article 41

(C) Article 47

(D) Article 45

Correct Answer: (D) Article 45

Explanation: The Constitution of India (86th Amendment, 2002) modified Article 45 to provide:

• Early childhood care and education for children below 6 years

It also introduced Article 21A (Right to Education).

7. According to the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, who can direct the Court that passed the decree to take security when an execution order is challenged in appeal?

(A) Only the High Court exercises writ jurisdiction

(B) The Appellate Court hearing the appeal

(C) The District Registrar of Property Records

(D) The Police Authority of the concerned jurisdiction

Correct Answer: (B) The Appellate Court hearing the appeal

Explanation: Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (Order 41 Rule 5):

• The Appellate Court can direct the lower court to take security when execution of a decree is stayed during appeal.

8. Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, how many High Court Judges constitute the Judicial membership of the Rule Committee?

(A) Three Judges of the High Court

(B) Two Judges of the High Court

(C) Four Judges of the High Court

(D) Five Judges of the High Court

Correct Answer: (A) Three Judges of the High Court

Explanation: As per Section 122–125 CPC provisions:

• The Rule Committee includes three High Court Judges as judicial members.

9. A civil suit is filed against Ajay, and the court issues a summons requiring him to appear. After receiving the summons, Ajay consults his lawyer to understand the timeline for filing his writum statement of defence under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. Within how many days from the date of service of summons must he submit his written statement?

(A) Thirty days

(B) Fifteen days

(C) Sixty days

(D) Ninety days

Correct Answer: (A) Thirty days

Explanation: Under Order 8 Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908:

• Written statement must be filed within 30 days from service of summons.

• It may be extended up to 90 days (or 120 days in commercial cases), but 30 days is the standard rule.

Q10.According to Section 18 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha'Sanhita, 2023, what is the minimam period of practice as an advocate, required to be convidered eligible for appointment as a Public Prosecutor or Additional Pubtle Prosecutor?

(A) 3 years

(C) 7 years

(B) 5 years

(D) 10 years

Correct option: (C) 7 years
Explanation: A minimum of 7 years’ practice as an advocate is required. This ensures adequate courtroom experience for prosecutorial roles.