Amity University-Noida Law Admissions 2026
Among top 100 Universities Globally in the Times Higher Education (THE) Interdisciplinary Science Rankings 2026
The AIBE 20 SET A Question Paper 2025, along with the Provisional Answer Key, is now out, giving candidates an early opportunity to evaluate their performance. The All India Bar Examination (AIBE) is a mandatory licensing exam for law graduates in India, conducted by the Bar Council of India (BCI). Clearing the AIBE examination grants the Certificate of Practice (COP), allowing candidates to practice as advocates.In this article, we have released the AIBE 20 SET C Question Paper 2025, along with its Answer Key and Detailed Solutions, to support your exam preparation.
According to the previous year's trends, the AIBE result 2025 is likely to be out in February 2026, about two to three months after the exam is held. Candidates can check their AIBE 20 results 2025 on the official website, allindiabarexamination.com.
This Story also Contains
The AIBE 20 SET C Question Paper 2025, along with its AIBE 20 Answer key 2025 and detailed solutions, can be downloaded from Careers360. It is a helpful resource for understanding the type of questions, difficulty level, and exam pattern.
AIBE 20 SET C Question Paper with Detaailed Solutions |
Also check:
Visit the Careers360 portal.
Register using your email address and password (new users must create an account first).
After logging in, locate the AIBE 20 SET C Question Paper 2025 link.
Click the download button to get the PDF containing the full AIBE 20 Question Paper with solutions.
The registered email will receive the PDF for offline reference.
Among top 100 Universities Globally in the Times Higher Education (THE) Interdisciplinary Science Rankings 2026
Ranked #18 amongst Institutions in India by NIRF | Ranked #1 in India for Academic Reputation by QS Rankings | 16 LPA Highest CTC
Overall Difficulty: Moderate to Moderately Difficult
Nature: Concept-based, heavy on updated laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA), procedural laws, constitutional understanding, and interpretation-type questions.
Key Trends:
Heavy emphasis on BNS–BNSS–BSA (2023) → approx 20–25% of the paper.
Concept-based reasoning more than memorisation.
Multiple Assertion–Reason, Statement–Conclusion, and Match the Following items.
Strong focus on Constitutional law + Procedural law + Evidence.
Taxation, Consumer Law, and TPA questions were straightforward.
Arbitration, CPC, and Contract law were slightly tricky.
Subject / Area | Weightage | Difficulty | Key Topics Covered | Trends Observed |
Criminal Law + Procedure (BNS, BNSS, BSA) | 25–30 | Moderate | Good-faith under IPC 78; Solitary confinement; Attempt (½ rule); Juvenile trial; Plea bargaining; Default imprisonment; Confession rules; Expert opinions | Focus on new criminal codes; Practical, applied questions; Many exceptions tested |
Constitutional Law | 18–20 | Moderate | Art. 45; PIL under Art. 32; Art. 253; Schedule IX; Privacy; Money Bill; Presidential Reference; Ceding territory | Emphasis on Fundamental Rights; Direct + case-based questions |
Civil Procedure Code (CPC) | 15 | Moderate–Tricky | Written statement timeline; Execution; Special Committee; Ex parte decree; Res judicata | Application-based; Statement-type questions |
Contract Act + TPA + Arbitration | 15–18 | Moderate | Counter-offer; Sec. 25; Acceptance; Co-surety liability; Delivery; TPA Sec. 106; Arbitration Sec. 21 | Logical + technical mix; Arbitration slightly tricky |
Taxation | 5 | Easy | Standard deduction; Entertainment allowance; Books of accounts; House-property interest caps | Direct, high-scoring |
Consumer Law | 5 | Easy–Moderate | Who is not a consumer; Central Council; False claim penalties; Bona fide gain cases | Straightforward statutory questions |
Family Law (Hindu + Muslim) | 5–6 | Moderate | Marriage time limits; Dissolution grounds; Prohibited degrees | Options with small variations |
Environmental & Administrative Law | 5 | Moderate | Art. 51A(g); Absolute Liability; Nemo judex rule; Publication restraint | Conceptual and judgement-focused |
Miscellaneous (Company, IT Act, Public nuisance) | 3–5 | Moderate | Penalties; Committees; Intermediary duties; Public nuisance | Short, direct questions |
According to the AIBE exam pattern , AIBE 20 SET C Question Paper 2025 are as follows :
Q1.In the following question, a statement is followed by two conclusions, I and II.
Statement: According to the Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohbition and Regulation) Act, 1986, the appropriate Government credits & 15,000 to the Child and Adolescent Labour Rehabilitation Fund for each child or adolescent for whom the fine amount from the employer has been deposited. The amount in the Fund is deposited or invested in banks, and the interest accrued is also payable to the child or adolescent.
Conclusions:
The child or adolescent is entitled not only to the credited amount but also to the interest accrued on it.
II. The government is not required to deposit any money other than what is collected as fines from the employer.
In the context of the above statement and conclusions, which one of the following is correct?
(A) Only Conclusion 1 follows
(B) Only Conclusion Il follows
(C) Both Conclusions I and II follow
(D) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
Q2. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, prescribes the death penalty for certain forms of gang rape.
Reason ( R) : The purpose of this provision is to make all sexual offences non-bailable.
In the context of the above assertion and reason, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Q3.Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, if the proclaimed person appears within the time specified in the proclantation, the Court shall release the attached property.
Reason (R) : The attachment of property under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 is intended to compel the appearance of the proclaimed person before the Court, not to permanently deprive him of his property.
In the context of the above assertion and reason, which one of the following is correct?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Q4.A dispute arises between two companies regarding the enforcement of their arbitration clause. Examine the following statements:
Statement 1 : An arbitration agreement must be in writing, and it can be contained in a contract, an exchange of letters, telex, telegrams, or electronic communications.
Statement 2 : An arbitration agreement may be implied solely from the conduct of the parties, without any written record.
(A) Only Statement I is true
(B) Only Statement 2 is true
(C) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true
(D) Neither Statement 1 nor 2 is true
Q5. In the following question, a statement is followed by two conclusions, I and II.
Statement: According to the Advocates Act, 1961, when the term of a State Bar Council expires without an election, the Bar Council of India shall constitute a Special Committee consisting of the ex officio member of the State Bar Council as Chairman and two nominated members. The Special Committee has the power to discharge all functions of the State Bar Council until the new Council is constituted, and elections must be held within six months unless the period is extended by the Bar Council of India.
Conclusions :
I. The Special Committee is empowered to handle pending disciplinary matters of the State Bar Council.
II. The Bar Council of India may extend the six months for holding elections to the State Bar Council, for reconded reasons.
In the context of the above statement and conclusions, which one of the following is correct?
(A) Only Conclusion 1 follows
(B) Only Conclusion II follows
(C) Both Conclusions I and II follow
(D) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
Q6. Read the given statements and choose the correct option.
Statement I : Under the Income-tax Act, 1961, a deduction equal to 30% of the annual value is allowed while computing income from house property.
Statement 2 ; Where the property has been acquired or constructed with borrowed capital, the maximum deduction for interest payable on such capital is capped at ₹2,00,000,subject to conditions.
(A) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false
(B) Only Statement I is true
(C) Only Statement 2 is true
(D) Both the Statements are true
Q7. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, a daughter in a Joint Hindu Family governed by Mitakshara Law becomes a coparcener by birth in her own right, just like a son.
Reason (R) : This provision grants daughters the same rights, liabilities, and disabilities in coparcenary property as those of sons.
In the context of the above assertion and reason under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both ( A ) and ( R ) are true, but ( R ) is not the correct explanation of ( A ).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Q8.As per the Indian Cuntract Act, 1872, an acceptance must be absolute and unqualified. What is the legal effect if an offeree's response to a proposal introduces a new term?
(A) It becomes a valid acceptance, and the new term is incorporated as a mere suggestion.
(B) It operates as a valid acceptance if the new term is not a material alteration.
(C) It constitutes a counterproposal, thereby rejecting the original proposal.
(D) It suspends the original proposal until the new term is accepted or rejected by the proposer.
Q9. The Indian Contract Act, 1872, provides for specific situations where an agreement without consideration is not void. Which of the following agreements is valid despite the lack of fresh consideration?
(A) An oral promise by 'A' to pay 'B' ₹ 5000 for a service 'B' voluntarily rendered to 'A' last month.
(B) A written and registered promise by a husband, out of natural love and affection, to transfer a property to his wife.
(C) A promise to subscribe ₹ 1 lakh to a public charitable fund.
(D) A promise made by a minor upon attaining majority to pay a debt incurred during his minority.
Q10. In the context of delegated legislation, the judicial doctrine that prevents a legislature from conferring "uncontrolled legislative power" on the administration is known as the doctrine of :
(A) Ultra Vires
(B) Excessive Delegation
(C) Conditional Legislation
(D) Separation of Powers
On Question asked by student community
Hello,
The above link provides you with the AIBE questions with answers that enhance your preparation.
Hope it helps with your query. Good luck.
Hello,
You can access AIBE (All India Bar Examination) previous year question papers with answers in Hindi from the mentioned link below:
https://law.careers360.com/hi/articles/aibe-previous-year-question-papers
Hope it helps.
Hello,
Here you can access AIBE 20 exam which was held on 30 November 2025 answer key set-wise A, B, C, D from the mentioned link below:
https://law.careers360.com/articles/aibe-20-answer-key-2025-pdf-all-india-bar-examination
Hope it helps.
Hello,
You can get the AIBE SET-B Question Paper along with answer keys from the Careers360 website. Practising these papers will helps you to understand the exam pattern, to identify the important topics, to improve time management, and overall it enhances your exam preparation.
LINK: https://law.careers360.com/articles/aibe-20-set-b-question-paper-pdf
Hope it helps!
Hello,
The AIBE 20 (2025) provisional result has not yet been declared. The provisional result/answer key will be available soon.
For more access below mentioned link:
https://law.careers360.com/articles/aibe-20-result-2025-date
Hope it helps.
Among top 100 Universities Globally in the Times Higher Education (THE) Interdisciplinary Science Rankings 2026
Ranked #18 amongst Institutions in India by NIRF | Ranked #1 in India for Academic Reputation by QS Rankings | 16 LPA Highest CTC
AICTE & UGC Approved | NAAC A+ Accredited
NAAC A++ Approved | Curriculum Aligned with BCI & UGC
India's Largest University | BCI approved | Meritorious Scholarships up to 5 lacs |
Integrated Learning – A balanced blend of management and legal education