Amity University-Noida Law Admissions 2026
Among top 100 Universities Globally in the Times Higher Education (THE) Interdisciplinary Science Rankings 2026
The Bar Council of India (BCI) successfully conducted the AIBE 20 examination today, November 30, 2025, with the exam beginning at 1 PM across all designated centres. The examination has now concluded smoothly nationwide, with candidates reporting a well-organised conduct at all exam centres. AIBE is a national-level examination that is conducted by the Bar Council of India. Also known as BCI. It assesses the knowledge based on law and the skills of law graduates who wish to practice law in India. The AIBE examination is mandatory for all Law graduates to pass the AIBE 20 to gain a certificate of practice, also known as COP. It is a licensing examination. It allows law graduates to practise law as advocates in the Indian courts. In this article, we will provide the AIBE 20 Question Paper 2025 with Answer Key and Detailed Solutions so that Law graduates can have a better idea of AIBE preparation.
The candidates found the AIBE 20 exam 2025 simple, and the majority of the questions were from the Criminal Law section.
Here's the AIBE 20 Question Paper 2025 with AIBE 20 Answer Key 2025 and Detailed Solutions:
| Set-wise Paper | Download PDF |
| AIBE 20 SET B Question Paper | To be available soon |
| Download Here |
The AIBE 20 question paper with solutions is available for download at Careers360, which offers full question papers and solutions for a variety of competitive exams, including the AIBE 20. Use the instructions listed below to get the AIBE 20 Previous Year Question Paper with Answer Key:
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The AIBE exam pattern slightly varies every year, and it is possible that in the next AIBE exam, certain changes could be seen as compared to the AIBE 20 Question Paper 2025. However, as per the AIBE 20 exam pattern, the general distribution of the AIBE 20 question paper is as follows.
Topics | Difficulty | Trend |
Constitutional Law | Easy–Moderate | Direct article-based |
IPC / BNS 2023 | Moderate | More conceptual |
CrPC / BNSS 2023 | Moderate | Procedure & timelines |
Evidence / BSA 2023 | Moderate–Tough | New numbering tested |
Torts | Easy | High scoring |
Consumer Law | Easy | Mostly direct |
Contracts | Easy–Moderate | Principle-based |
Labour Laws | Moderate | Section-specific |
Company Law | Moderate | Penalty-based questions |
Drafting / Interpretation | Moderate | Conceptual |
Environmental Law | Easy | Direct provisions |
Cyber Law / IT Act | Moderate | Definitions, penalties |
AIBE 20 maintained a balanced difficulty, similar to recent cycles (AIBE 18 & 19).
The exam required:
Among top 100 Universities Globally in the Times Higher Education (THE) Interdisciplinary Science Rankings 2026
Ranked #18 amongst Institutions in India by NIRF | Ranked #1 in India for Academic Reputation by QS Rankings | 16 LPA Highest CTC
While the majority of questions were straightforward bare-act-based, some required accuracy in section numbers, timelines, punishments, and exceptions, making the exam knowledge-intensive.
Section | Questions | Difficulty | What Came in the Exam |
1. Constitutional Law • Preamble facts • PIL basics • FR vs DPSP differences | 10–12 Mostly memory-based. Very scoring. | Easy–Moderate • Direct articles (14, 19, 21, 32, 136) | |
2. Criminal Laws (IPC/BNS + CrPC/BNSS + Evidence/BSA) | 25–30 | Moderate | BNS / IPC: punishments, exceptions, attempts, gang rape provisions |
BNSS / CrPC: plea bargaining, default imprisonment, PP eligibility, juveniles Evidence: relevancy, admissions, conspiracy, public documents | Biggest chunk. Needed good conceptual clarity. | ||
3. Torts • Consent • Necessity • Statutory authority | 3–4 Straightforward theory—free marks! | Easy | • Act of God |
4. Contract Act • Surety contribution • Consideration • Effect of uncertainty | 4–5 Clean & formula-like questions. | Easy–Moderate | • Acceptance completion |
5. Consumer Protection Act • Rights • Councils • Jurisdiction limits | 4–5 Fully simple & direct. Great scoring area. | Easy | • Who is a consumer |
6. Company Law • DIN rules • Penalties & officer liability | 3–4 More number-based; required recall. | Moderate | • Section 10A |
7. Labour Laws • Weekly holiday rules • Gratuity—continuous service • Rehabilitation fund | 4–5 Mix of factual + small concepts. | Moderate | • Child & Adolescent Labour |
8. Procedural Laws (CPC + Limitation) • Security during execution • WS timelines • Compensatory costs limit | 5–6 Direct law questions; no tricks. | Easy–Moderate | • Civil imprisonment |
9. Special Laws (Cyber, Environment, TPA, IP, Tax) Environment: officer liability TPA: lease termination notice Patents: secrecy directions Income Tax: 30% deduction | 5–6 Mixed bag—some easy, some unexpected. | Mixed | Cyber: intermediaries, DSC |
Q1. The grounds for decree for dissolution of marriage under Section 2 of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939 are that the :
1. Whereabouts of the husband have not been known for a period of two years.
2. .Husband has been sentenced to imprisonment for a period of five years.
3. Husband has failed to perform, without reasonable cause, his marital obligations for a period of two years.
4 Husband has neglected or has failed to provide for maintenance of his wife for a period of one year. years. Select the correct answer.
(A) III and IV
(B) I and II
(C) I, II, III and IV
(D) None of these
1. Correct Option: (D) None of these
Explanation:
The correct grounds under Section 2 are:
Husband missing for 4 years (correct)
Husband sentenced to 7 years (not 5)
Failure to perform marital obligations for 3 years (not 2)
Failure to maintain for 2 years (not 1)
Since none of the combinations match → None of these.
Q2. As per The Information Technology Act, 2000, "intermediary", with respect to any particular electronic records, means any person who on behalf of another person receives, stores or transmits that record or provides any service with respect to that record and includes :
I. telecom service providers.
II. search engines.
III. cyber cafes.
IV. online-auction sites.
Select the correct answer.
(A) 1 and TV
(B) I and II
(C) I, II and IV
(D) I,II, III and IV
2. Correct Option: (D) I, II, III and IV
Explanation:
“Intermediary” includes:
telecom providers, search engines, cyber cafés, online auction sites.
Q3. Under Section 37 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, which of the following orders is not appealable ?
(A) Refusing to refer parties to arbitration under Section 8.
(B) Refusing to appoint arbitrator under Section II.
(C) Refusing to grant any measure under Section 9 .
(D) Refusing to grant an interim measure under Section 17
3. Correct Option: (B)
Explanation:
Orders under Sections 8, 9, 17 are appealable.
Section 11 order (refusing to appoint arbitrator) is not appealable.
Q4. Under Section 9A of The Advocates Act, 1961, a legal aid committee constituted by a Bar Council shall consist of :
(A) Not exceeding thirteen but not less than nine members.
(13) Not exceeding eleven but not less than seven members.
(C) Not exceeding nine but not less than five members.
(D) Not exceeding seven but not less than three member
4. Correct Option: (C)
Explanation:
Section 9A: Legal Aid Committee must have not more than 9 and not less than 5 members.
Q5. Which Section of the Advocates Act, 1961 provides for the disciplinary powers of the Bar India ?
(A) Section 35
(B) Section 36
(C) Section 37
(D) Section 38
5. Correct Option: (B)
Explanation:
Disciplinary powers of Bar Council of India are in Section 36.
Q6. Match List I (General Defences in Tort) with List II (Leading Cases) and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
List I | List II |
i. Act of God | 1. Vaughan v Taff Vale Rail Co. (1860) 5 H \& N 679 |
ii. Consent (Volenti non fit injuria) | 2. Kirk v Gregory (1876) I Ex. D. 55 |
iii. Statutory Authority | 3. Nichols v. Marsland (1876) 2 Ex. D. 1 |
iv. Necessity | 4. Hall v. Brooklands Auto Racing Club (1933) 1 KB 205 |
Codes :
(A) i-1; ii-2; iii-3; iv-4
(B) i-2; ii-3; iii 4 ; iv-1
(C) i-3; ii-4; iii-1; iv-2
(D) i-4; ii-1; iii-3; iv-2
6. Correct Option: (C)
Explanation (Correct Matches):
Act of God → Nichols v. Marsland
Consent → Hall v. Brooklands
Statutory Authority → Kirk v. Gregory
Necessity → Cope v. Sharpe
Q7. The Central Consumer Protection Council, as provided under Section 3(2) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, shall consist of :
(A) a Chairperson and ten other members, or a Chairperson and such other members as may be prescribed.
(B) a Chairperson and five other members.
(C) a Chairperson and such other members as may be prescribed.
(D) a Chairperson and ten other members.
7. Correct Option: (C)
Explanation:
Central Consumer Protection Council:
Chairperson + such other members as prescribed.
8. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court of India held that, the Preamble is not part of the Constitution ?
(A) In re: The Kerala Education Bill, 1957, AIR 1958 SC 956
(B) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala, AIR 1973 SC 1461
(C) In re: The Berubari Union and Exchange of Enclaves, AIR 1960 SC 845
(D) Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India, AIR 1980 SC 1789
8. Correct Option: None of the options match
Explanation:
The Supreme Court held Preamble is not part of Constitution in Re: Berubari Union (1960).
This case is not among the options → no correct match.
Q9. Which Article in the Constitution of India relates to the subject-matter of laws made by Parliament to
(A) Article 249
(B) Article 251
(2) Article 253
(D) Article 255
9. Correct Option: (C) Article 253
Explanation:
Article 253 empowers Parliament to pass laws for implementing international treaties.
Q10. In which of the following judgment/s was the issue of 'right to privacy' dealt with by the Supreme Court
1. Kharak Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh \& Ors. (AIR 1963 SC 1295) of India?
11. PUCL v. Union of India (AIR 1997 SC 568)
III. Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) \& Anr. v. Union of India \& Ors. (2017) 10 SCC 1
IV. M.P. Sharma v. Satish Chandra (AIR 1954 SC 300)
(A) II, III and IV
(B) II and III
(C) Only III
(D) 1 III, III and IV
10. Correct Option: (B) II and III
Explanation:
Right to privacy is discussed in:
PUCL (telephone tapping)
Puttaswamy (2017)
Not in M.P. Sharma (rejected) or Kharak Singh (partial).
For more Question Paper and Solutions , please download the ebook given above.
On Question asked by student community
Hello,
The above link provides you with the AIBE questions with answers that enhance your preparation.
Hope it helps with your query. Good luck.
Hello,
You can access AIBE (All India Bar Examination) previous year question papers with answers in Hindi from the mentioned link below:
https://law.careers360.com/hi/articles/aibe-previous-year-question-papers
Hope it helps.
Hello,
Here you can access AIBE 20 exam which was held on 30 November 2025 answer key set-wise A, B, C, D from the mentioned link below:
https://law.careers360.com/articles/aibe-20-answer-key-2025-pdf-all-india-bar-examination
Hope it helps.
Hello,
You can get the AIBE SET-B Question Paper along with answer keys from the Careers360 website. Practising these papers will helps you to understand the exam pattern, to identify the important topics, to improve time management, and overall it enhances your exam preparation.
LINK: https://law.careers360.com/articles/aibe-20-set-b-question-paper-pdf
Hope it helps!
Hello,
The AIBE 20 (2025) provisional result has not yet been declared. The provisional result/answer key will be available soon.
For more access below mentioned link:
https://law.careers360.com/articles/aibe-20-result-2025-date
Hope it helps.
Among top 100 Universities Globally in the Times Higher Education (THE) Interdisciplinary Science Rankings 2026
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