CLAT 2026 Expected Question Paper: Difficulty & Section-Wise Analysis

CLAT 2026 Expected Difficulty Level

Below are the expected difficulty levels for CLAT 2026.

CLAT 2026 - Previous Years' Question Paper Analysis

• The previous edition (CLAT 2025) was widely reported as “easy to moderate.”

• Sections like English and Legal Reasoning were considered reasonably “doable,” but Quantitative Techniques and GK/Current Affairs sometimes provided greater difficulties.

• The format is the same for 2026: 120 questions divided into five divisions (English, Current Affairs/GK, Legal Reasoning, Logical Reasoning, and Quantitative Techniques).

• However, some experts expect passages to become thicker, and there may be more multi-step reasoning, notably in Legal and Logical Reasoning, which boosts time-management pressure.

CLAT 2026 Expected Question Paper- In Detail Analysis

CLAT aspirants need to have an idea of the previous year's paper analysis and the CLAT previous Year's question paper. Below is the CLAT 2026 expected question paper with a detailed analysis.

CLAT 2026 Section-Wise Expected Questions

Below are the section-wise expected questions based on the CLAT previous year question paper standard.

English Language and Reading Comprehension

Read the passage and answer the questions given below.

In recent years, cities across the world have begun adopting “15-minute neighbourhoods”—urban designs where residents can access essential services such as schools, markets, parks, healthcare centres, and public transport within a fifteen-minute walk or cycle ride from their homes. Proponents argue that such designs restructure urban life in ways that promote sustainability, reduce traffic congestion, and enable stronger community networks. By minimising dependence on private vehicles, the model promises not only fewer emissions but also healthier lifestyles.

However, critics caution against romanticising the concept. They note that the success of a 15-minute neighbourhood depends heavily on pre-existing socio-economic conditions. In cities with stark income inequality, improved accessibility often leads to gentrification: as neighbourhoods become more convenient and green, property values increase, pushing long-time lower-income residents out. Ironically, the very people intended to benefit from the model may end up displaced by it.

Another concern relates to the assumption that proximity automatically guarantees equal access. Two neighbourhoods may be similarly designed, yet vastly different in terms of quality—one school may have well-trained teachers, while another may struggle with outdated infrastructure. Without equitable investment, the 15-minute ideal risks becoming a superficial label rather than a meaningful shift in urban planning.

Despite these criticisms, city planners emphasise that the model is not a rigid formula but a flexible guiding principle. They stress that the concept’s success lies not in enforcing uniformity but in adapting to local needs—recognising, for instance, that what works in a compact European city may not translate directly to a densely populated Indian metro. In this sense, the 15-minute model serves as a reminder that urban planning must integrate mobility, inclusivity, and ecological responsibility rather than treat them as separate issues.

The debate ultimately illustrates a larger question: Should cities prioritise visionary long-term transformations even if they risk short-term disruptions, or should planners adopt only those reforms that guarantee immediate and equal benefits? Advocates of the model believe that hesitation cannot be an excuse for inaction, especially in the face of climate change. Critics counter that without addressing structural inequalities, such reforms may entrench existing disparities. The answer, if there is one, may lie not in choosing one approach over the other but in balancing ambition with caution.

QUESTIONS

1. What is the primary purpose of the passage?

A. To argue that the 15-minute city model is the only sustainable future for urban planning
B. To examine both the potential and limitations of 15-minute neighbourhoods
C. To show how European cities have successfully adopted the model
D. To highlight the economic benefits of reducing traffic congestion

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The passage presents benefits and criticisms, taking a balanced, analytical approach.

2. According to the passage, which of the following is a key criticism of the 15-minute neighbourhood model?

A. It requires advanced technology to be effective
B. It cannot be applied anywhere outside Europe
C. It may unintentionally cause the displacement of lower-income residents
D. It encourages excessive use of private vehicles

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Critics warn that increased convenience can raise property prices, leading to gentrification and displacement.

3. The author suggests that proximity does not automatically ensure equal access because—

A. People may not prefer walking long distances
B. The quality of local services can vary dramatically
C. Public transport systems may not support short-distance travel
D. Local governments are resistant to the model

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The passage specifically contrasts two schools that may be equally close but unequal in quality.

4. Which of the following statements best captures the author’s view on the future of 15-minute neighbourhoods?

A. The concept must be abandoned due to its structural flaws
B. It should be implemented only after the complete elimination of inequality
C. It is useful if adapted to local contexts rather than applied uniformly
D. It works best in cities with low population density

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The author emphasises flexibility, adaptation, and context-specific planning.

5. What broader dilemma does the passage highlight regarding urban reform?

A. Whether cities should prioritise aesthetics over functionality
B. Whether long-term visions should outweigh concerns about immediate fairness
C. Whether public transport should replace private vehicles entirely
D. Whether urban planning should first focus on rural development

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The final paragraph frames the debate as long-term transformation vs. immediate, equal benefits.

Current Affairs and General Knowledge

1. Which High Court recently upheld the constitutional validity of the Digital Personal Data Protection Act (DPDP Act), 2023?

Answer: Delhi High Court
Explanation: The Delhi HC dismissed petitions challenging the DPDP Act, holding that Parliament has the power to regulate data protection and privacy.

2. Which landmark Supreme Court judgment in 2024 reaffirmed that the right to marry is not a fundamental right under the Constitution?

Answer: Same-Sex Marriage (Supriyo Chakraborty v. Union of India, 2023–24)
Explanation: The Court ruled that same-sex marriage is not a fundamental right and any recognition must come from Parliament.

3. Which international court in 2024 issued provisional measures against Israel under the Genocide Convention?

Answer: International Court of Justice (ICJ)
Explanation: The ICJ issued interim directions asking Israel to prevent genocidal acts in Gaza while the case is pending.

4. Which Indian state became the first in 2024 to legally mandate the use of AI-based cameras for road safety enforcement?

Answer: Kerala
Explanation: Kerala implemented the AI-camera enforcement system after the High Court cleared legal challenges over privacy and transparency.

5. Which authority in 2024 issued the first-ever “Digital Competition Guidelines” to monitor Big Tech dominance in India?

Answer: Competition Commission of India (CCI)
Explanation: The CCI released guidelines to prevent anti-competitive conduct by large digital platforms, strengthening India’s competition law framework.

Legal Reasoning

1. A law prohibits the sale of harmful chemicals without a license. Ravi sells such chemicals without obtaining one. Is he liable?

Answer: Yes.
Explanation: When an act is expressly prohibited by law, mens rea is not required; the offence is complete once the prohibited act is committed.

2. A contract is signed under threat. Is the contract valid?

Answer: No.
Explanation: Contracts made under coercion (Section 15, Contract Act) are voidable at the option of the coerced party.

3. Police search a house without a warrant even though no urgency exists. Is the search lawful?

Answer: No.
Explanation: Warrantless searches are permissible only in situations of urgent necessity; otherwise, they violate procedural safeguards.

4. Neha publishes a false statement harming Riya’s reputation. Has Neha committed defamation?

Answer: Yes.
Explanation: Defamation requires a false statement, publication, and reputation harm—all elements are satisfied.

5. A minor agrees to buy a motorcycle. Is the agreement enforceable?

Answer: No.
Explanation: A minor is not competent to contract (Sec. 11, Contract Act); therefore, any agreement with a minor is void ab initio.

Logical Reasoning

Q1. If all strong arguments are valid, and some valid arguments are unsound, which conclusion necessarily follows?
A. Some strong arguments may be unsound

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Strong ⟶ valid; some valid ⟶ unsound; therefore, strong arguments might fall within the unsound subset. The statement is not definite but possible, making “may be” correct.

Q2. A statement is true only if its negation is false. A claim’s negation is found to be true. What follows?
A. The claim is false

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: If negation is true, the original statement must be false (law of non-contradiction).

Q3. A policy improves efficiency only if monitoring increases. Monitoring has not increased. What can be logically inferred?
C. The policy has not improved efficiency

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Necessary condition (“only if”):
Efficiency ↑ → Monitoring ↑.
Monitoring did not increase → efficiency cannot increase.

Q4. If no flawed arguments persuade rational people, and some persuasive arguments are flawed, what must be true?
B. Some persuasive arguments do not persuade rational people

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Flawed arguments persuade no rational person. Since some persuasive arguments are flawed, those persuasive arguments cannot persuade rational people ⇒ some persuasive arguments fail with rational people.

Q5. If Sufficient Condition A ensures Outcome B, and B does not occur, what can be said about A?
D. A did not occur

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: A → B.
Not B ⇒ Not A (contrapositive).
This is the only logically guaranteed conclusion.

Quantitative Aptitude

Q1. A number is increased by 20% and then decreased by 25%; if the final value is 360, what was the original number?

Answer: 400
Explanation: Net multiplier = 1.20 × 0.75 = 0.90 → Original = 360 / 0.9 = 400.

Q2.A and B can complete the work in 12 days and 18 days, respectively. They work together for 4 days, after which A leaves. How many more days will B take to finish the remaining work?

Answer: 5 days
Explanation: A’s rate = 1/12; B’s = 1/18 → Combined = 5/36.
Work done in 4 days = 4 × (5/36) = 5/9 → Remaining = 4/9.
Time by B = (4/9) ÷ (1/18) = 8 = 5 days?
Correctly: (4/9) × 18 = 8 days.
But already 4 days have passed? No question: “more days for B alone” → 8 days.
Final Answer: 8 days.

Q3. The average of 7 numbers is 54. When one number is removed, the average becomes 50. What is the removed number?

Answer: 82
Explanation: Total of 7 numbers = 7×54 = 378.
Total of remaining 6 = 6×50 = 300.
Removed number = 378 – 300 = 82.

Q4. A shopkeeper marks an item 40% above the cost price and offers two successive discounts of 15% and 10%. If the final selling price is ₹918, find the cost price.

Answer: ₹1,000
Explanation: Marked Price = 1.4 CP.
Net discount = 0.85 × 0.90 = 0.765 → SP = 1.4CP × 0.765 = 1.071CP.
918 = 1.071CP → CP = 918 / 1.071 = 1000.

Q5. A train running at 72 km/h crosses a pole in 18 seconds. What time will it take to cross a 180-metre platform?

Answer: 33 seconds
Explanation: Speed = 72 km/h = 20 m/s.
Train length = 20 × 18 = 360 m.
Distance to cross platform = 360 + 180 = 540 m.
Time = 540 ÷ 20 = 27 seconds?
Re-evaluating: 540/20 = 27.
Final Answer: 27 seconds.