Amity University-Noida Law Admissions 2026
Among top 100 Universities Globally in the Times Higher Education (THE) Interdisciplinary Science Rankings 2026
It takes more than just diligence to ace the CLAT; it also requires astute preparation. As the CLAT 2026 Exam draws near, candidates from all around the nation are looking for the advantage that distinguishes high scorers: a thorough grasp of what the test is likely to cover this year. Understanding the intended inquiry style can be crucial when dealing with dynamic passages, shifting patterns, and evolving trends.
This carefully chosen CLAT 2026 Expected Question Paper is made to reflect the most recent level of difficulty, format, and conceptual emphasis of the test and covers the CLAT Syllabus. Every question reflects the trends that have emerged from prior years and expert insights, from legal reasoning twists to comprehension-heavy parts. This is your road plan for practising as if the actual exam were already here if you're serious about increasing accuracy, speed, and confidence.
Below are the expected difficulty levels for CLAT 2026.
Sections | Expected Difficulty | Question Types |
Easy to Moderate | You should anticipate medium-length (fiction/nonfiction) parts. Inference-heavy or complex understanding may push it to moderate; vocabulary and direct inference/questions are probably manageable. | |
Moderate to Difficult | More emphasis on recent events, legal/policy issues, potentially some static GK — unexpected if not well-revised | |
Moderate | Questions likely rely on principles, using facts, reasoning, and will test interpretation and critical thinking rather than rote legal knowledge. | |
Moderate | Anticipate critical and analytical reasoning, deductions, and argument evaluation; if the passages are complex, time management will be crucial. | |
Moderate but Tricky | Basic math (arithmetic, data interpretation, proportions), although some of the questions might take a long time or be set in a passage or data-based format, which could be harmful if not practised |
The previous edition (CLAT 2025) was widely reported as “easy to moderate.”
Sections like English and Legal Reasoning were considered reasonably “doable,” but Quantitative Techniques and GK/Current Affairs sometimes provided greater difficulties.
The format is the same for 2026: 120 questions divided into five divisions (English, Current Affairs/GK, Legal Reasoning, Logical Reasoning, and Quantitative Techniques).
However, some experts expect passages to become thicker, and there may be more multi-step reasoning, notably in Legal and Logical Reasoning, which boosts time-management pressure.
Among top 100 Universities Globally in the Times Higher Education (THE) Interdisciplinary Science Rankings 2026
Ranked #18 amongst Institutions in India by NIRF | Ranked #1 in India for Academic Reputation by QS Rankings | 16 LPA Highest CTC
CLAT aspirants need to have an idea of the previous year's paper analysis and the CLAT previous Year's question paper. Below is the CLAT 2026 expected question paper with a detailed analysis.
Section | Expected Questions |
English Language and Reading Comprehension | Last Year Analysis
Expected Questions Based on PYQs
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Current Affairs and General Knowledge | Last Year Analysis
Expected Questions based on PYQs
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Legal Reasoning | Last Year Analysis
Expected Questions based on PYQs
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Logical Reasoning | Last Year Analysis
Expected Questions based on PYQs
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Quantitative Aptitude | Last year's Analysis
Expected Questions based on PYQs
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Below are the section-wise expected questions based on the CLAT previous year question paper standard.
Read the passage and answer the questions given below.
In recent years, cities across the world have begun adopting “15-minute neighbourhoods”—urban designs where residents can access essential services such as schools, markets, parks, healthcare centres, and public transport within a fifteen-minute walk or cycle ride from their homes. Proponents argue that such designs restructure urban life in ways that promote sustainability, reduce traffic congestion, and enable stronger community networks. By minimising dependence on private vehicles, the model promises not only fewer emissions but also healthier lifestyles.
However, critics caution against romanticising the concept. They note that the success of a 15-minute neighbourhood depends heavily on pre-existing socio-economic conditions. In cities with stark income inequality, improved accessibility often leads to gentrification: as neighbourhoods become more convenient and green, property values increase, pushing long-time lower-income residents out. Ironically, the very people intended to benefit from the model may end up displaced by it.
Another concern relates to the assumption that proximity automatically guarantees equal access. Two neighbourhoods may be similarly designed, yet vastly different in terms of quality—one school may have well-trained teachers, while another may struggle with outdated infrastructure. Without equitable investment, the 15-minute ideal risks becoming a superficial label rather than a meaningful shift in urban planning.
Despite these criticisms, city planners emphasise that the model is not a rigid formula but a flexible guiding principle. They stress that the concept’s success lies not in enforcing uniformity but in adapting to local needs—recognising, for instance, that what works in a compact European city may not translate directly to a densely populated Indian metro. In this sense, the 15-minute model serves as a reminder that urban planning must integrate mobility, inclusivity, and ecological responsibility rather than treat them as separate issues.
The debate ultimately illustrates a larger question: Should cities prioritise visionary long-term transformations even if they risk short-term disruptions, or should planners adopt only those reforms that guarantee immediate and equal benefits? Advocates of the model believe that hesitation cannot be an excuse for inaction, especially in the face of climate change. Critics counter that without addressing structural inequalities, such reforms may entrench existing disparities. The answer, if there is one, may lie not in choosing one approach over the other but in balancing ambition with caution.
QUESTIONS
1. What is the primary purpose of the passage?
A. To argue that the 15-minute city model is the only sustainable future for urban planning
B. To examine both the potential and limitations of 15-minute neighbourhoods
C. To show how European cities have successfully adopted the model
D. To highlight the economic benefits of reducing traffic congestion
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The passage presents benefits and criticisms, taking a balanced, analytical approach.
2. According to the passage, which of the following is a key criticism of the 15-minute neighbourhood model?
A. It requires advanced technology to be effective
B. It cannot be applied anywhere outside Europe
C. It may unintentionally cause the displacement of lower-income residents
D. It encourages excessive use of private vehicles
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Critics warn that increased convenience can raise property prices, leading to gentrification and displacement.
3. The author suggests that proximity does not automatically ensure equal access because—
A. People may not prefer walking long distances
B. The quality of local services can vary dramatically
C. Public transport systems may not support short-distance travel
D. Local governments are resistant to the model
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The passage specifically contrasts two schools that may be equally close but unequal in quality.
4. Which of the following statements best captures the author’s view on the future of 15-minute neighbourhoods?
A. The concept must be abandoned due to its structural flaws
B. It should be implemented only after the complete elimination of inequality
C. It is useful if adapted to local contexts rather than applied uniformly
D. It works best in cities with low population density
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The author emphasises flexibility, adaptation, and context-specific planning.
5. What broader dilemma does the passage highlight regarding urban reform?
A. Whether cities should prioritise aesthetics over functionality
B. Whether long-term visions should outweigh concerns about immediate fairness
C. Whether public transport should replace private vehicles entirely
D. Whether urban planning should first focus on rural development
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The final paragraph frames the debate as long-term transformation vs. immediate, equal benefits.
1. Which High Court recently upheld the constitutional validity of the Digital Personal Data Protection Act (DPDP Act), 2023?
Answer: Delhi High Court
Explanation: The Delhi HC dismissed petitions challenging the DPDP Act, holding that Parliament has the power to regulate data protection and privacy.
2. Which landmark Supreme Court judgment in 2024 reaffirmed that the right to marry is not a fundamental right under the Constitution?
Answer: Same-Sex Marriage (Supriyo Chakraborty v. Union of India, 2023–24)
Explanation: The Court ruled that same-sex marriage is not a fundamental right and any recognition must come from Parliament.
3. Which international court in 2024 issued provisional measures against Israel under the Genocide Convention?
Answer: International Court of Justice (ICJ)
Explanation: The ICJ issued interim directions asking Israel to prevent genocidal acts in Gaza while the case is pending.
4. Which Indian state became the first in 2024 to legally mandate the use of AI-based cameras for road safety enforcement?
Answer: Kerala
Explanation: Kerala implemented the AI-camera enforcement system after the High Court cleared legal challenges over privacy and transparency.
5. Which authority in 2024 issued the first-ever “Digital Competition Guidelines” to monitor Big Tech dominance in India?
Answer: Competition Commission of India (CCI)
Explanation: The CCI released guidelines to prevent anti-competitive conduct by large digital platforms, strengthening India’s competition law framework.
1. A law prohibits the sale of harmful chemicals without a license. Ravi sells such chemicals without obtaining one. Is he liable?
Answer: Yes.
Explanation: When an act is expressly prohibited by law, mens rea is not required; the offence is complete once the prohibited act is committed.
2. A contract is signed under threat. Is the contract valid?
Answer: No.
Explanation: Contracts made under coercion (Section 15, Contract Act) are voidable at the option of the coerced party.
3. Police search a house without a warrant even though no urgency exists. Is the search lawful?
Answer: No.
Explanation: Warrantless searches are permissible only in situations of urgent necessity; otherwise, they violate procedural safeguards.
4. Neha publishes a false statement harming Riya’s reputation. Has Neha committed defamation?
Answer: Yes.
Explanation: Defamation requires a false statement, publication, and reputation harm—all elements are satisfied.
5. A minor agrees to buy a motorcycle. Is the agreement enforceable?
Answer: No.
Explanation: A minor is not competent to contract (Sec. 11, Contract Act); therefore, any agreement with a minor is void ab initio.
Q1. If all strong arguments are valid, and some valid arguments are unsound, which conclusion necessarily follows?
A. Some strong arguments may be unsound
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Strong ⟶ valid; some valid ⟶ unsound; therefore, strong arguments might fall within the unsound subset. The statement is not definite but possible, making “may be” correct.
Q2. A statement is true only if its negation is false. A claim’s negation is found to be true. What follows?
A. The claim is false
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: If negation is true, the original statement must be false (law of non-contradiction).
Q3. A policy improves efficiency only if monitoring increases. Monitoring has not increased. What can be logically inferred?
C. The policy has not improved efficiency
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Necessary condition (“only if”):
Efficiency ↑ → Monitoring ↑.
Monitoring did not increase → efficiency cannot increase.
Q4. If no flawed arguments persuade rational people, and some persuasive arguments are flawed, what must be true?
B. Some persuasive arguments do not persuade rational people
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Flawed arguments persuade no rational person. Since some persuasive arguments are flawed, those persuasive arguments cannot persuade rational people ⇒ some persuasive arguments fail with rational people.
Q5. If Sufficient Condition A ensures Outcome B, and B does not occur, what can be said about A?
D. A did not occur
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: A → B.
Not B ⇒ Not A (contrapositive).
This is the only logically guaranteed conclusion.
Q1. A number is increased by 20% and then decreased by 25%; if the final value is 360, what was the original number?
Answer: 400
Explanation: Net multiplier = 1.20 × 0.75 = 0.90 → Original = 360 / 0.9 = 400.
Q2.A and B can complete the work in 12 days and 18 days, respectively. They work together for 4 days, after which A leaves. How many more days will B take to finish the remaining work?
Answer: 5 days
Explanation: A’s rate = 1/12; B’s = 1/18 → Combined = 5/36.
Work done in 4 days = 4 × (5/36) = 5/9 → Remaining = 4/9.
Time by B = (4/9) ÷ (1/18) = 8 = 5 days?
Correctly: (4/9) × 18 = 8 days.
But already 4 days have passed? No question: “more days for B alone” → 8 days.
Final Answer: 8 days.
Q3. The average of 7 numbers is 54. When one number is removed, the average becomes 50. What is the removed number?
Answer: 82
Explanation: Total of 7 numbers = 7×54 = 378.
Total of remaining 6 = 6×50 = 300.
Removed number = 378 – 300 = 82.
Q4. A shopkeeper marks an item 40% above the cost price and offers two successive discounts of 15% and 10%. If the final selling price is ₹918, find the cost price.
Answer: ₹1,000
Explanation: Marked Price = 1.4 CP.
Net discount = 0.85 × 0.90 = 0.765 → SP = 1.4CP × 0.765 = 1.071CP.
918 = 1.071CP → CP = 918 / 1.071 = 1000.
Q5. A train running at 72 km/h crosses a pole in 18 seconds. What time will it take to cross a 180-metre platform?
Answer: 33 seconds
Explanation: Speed = 72 km/h = 20 m/s.
Train length = 20 × 18 = 360 m.
Distance to cross platform = 360 + 180 = 540 m.
Time = 540 ÷ 20 = 27 seconds?
Re-evaluating: 540/20 = 27.
Final Answer: 27 seconds.
On Question asked by student community
With an AIR of 34724 and OBC category rank of 7153, chances of getting a seat in DSNLU Visakhapatnam are low in early rounds. However, since you are already invited for counselling, there may be some chance in later rounds depending on seat vacancy and cut-off movement. You should participate in all counselling rounds and keep other college options open.
You can check CLAT cutoffs and counselling details here:
https://law.careers360.com/articles/clat-cutoff
With a CLAT LLM rank of 13656, getting a top NLU is difficult. You may have chances in lower-ranked NLUs or private law universities, depending on seat availability and category.
You can check CLAT LLM counselling details here:
https://law.careers360.com/articles/clat-llm-cut-off
With a CLAT PG rank of 1257 in the SC category and being a woman candidate with Rajasthan domicile, you do have a realistic chance of securing admission to several National Law Universities, though the top NLUs may be difficult at this rank. Admission chances depend heavily on category-wise cut-offs, domicile reservations, and how many seats are available in a given year. For top-tier NLUs like NLSIU Bengaluru, NALSAR Hyderabad, or NLUD, the closing ranks for SC category usually fall much lower, so chances there are minimal. However, you should definitely consider mid- and lower-ranked NLUs where SC category cut-offs often extend beyond 1200–1500 ranks.
You should prioritise NLUs that offer domicile or state quota benefits, especially those closer to your home state or neighbouring regions. National Law University Jodhpur (if applicable under domicile or category movement), Hidayatullah National Law University Raipur, Dr. Ram Manohar Lohiya National Law University Lucknow, Gujarat National Law University Gandhinagar, Maharashtra National Law University (Nagpur or Aurangabad), National Law University Odisha, and Tamil Nadu National Law University are some options where candidates in the SC category with similar ranks have secured seats in previous counselling rounds. Lower-tier NLUs like Damodaram Sanjivayya National Law University, Himachal Pradesh National Law University, and Dharmashastra National Law University can also be kept in your preference list as safer options.
Your strategy should be to keep a wide preference list during counselling, placing mid-ranked NLUs first and then moving to lower NLUs, rather than restricting yourself only to a few choices. Also, stay active during subsequent counselling rounds and vacancy rounds, as many seats in the SC category are filled later due to withdrawals. Overall, while top NLUs may be tough, you have a fair chance of getting into a decent NLU if you plan your preferences smartly and remain flexible.
With a CLAT PG rank of around 11,000, getting admission into the top National Law Universities (NLUs) is not likely, as their general category cut-offs usually close much earlier. However, you still have realistic chances in lower-ranked and newer NLUs, especially in the later rounds of CLAT counselling or through vacant seats.
At this rank, you may consider NLUs such as NLU Tripura, NLU Meghalaya, NLU Nagaland, NLU Sikkim, NLU Andhra Pradesh, NLU Odisha, NLU Jabalpur, and NLU Aurangabad, particularly if you belong to a reserved category like SC, ST, OBC, EWS, or have domicile or women reservation applicable. Cut-offs for these universities tend to go higher in rank compared to older NLUs, and seats often open up in subsequent counselling rounds due to withdrawals.
If you do not secure an NLU seat, you should also strongly consider reputed state and private law universities that accept CLAT PG scores or conduct their own entrance tests. Universities such as Faculty of Law, Banaras Hindu University (BHU), Delhi University (DU – through CUET PG), Jamia Millia Islamia, Symbiosis Law School, Christ University, Jindal Global Law School, and Nirma University are good alternatives for LLM aspirants. Many of these institutions offer strong academic exposure, experienced faculty, and good research opportunities, sometimes even better than newer NLUs.
Overall, while a rank of 11,000 limits options in top NLUs, admission is still possible in newer NLUs or good non-NLU law universities, provided you actively participate in counselling rounds and keep backup options ready.
With a CLAT 2026 All India Rank around 2070, Telangana domicile, and holding an OBC certificate (girl candidate), your chances of getting admission into a top-tier NLU like NLSIU Bengaluru, NALSAR Hyderabad, NUJS Kolkata or NLU Jodhpur are quite low, as their closing ranks are usually much higher. However, you still have realistic chances in several mid-tier and newer NLUs, especially if OBC reservation and domicile or women reservation is applicable.
Based on previous years’ counselling trends, you can reasonably expect chances in NLUs such as NLU Odisha (Cuttack), NLIU Bhopal (borderline, depending on category movement), NLU Assam (Guwahati), DSNLU Visakhapatnam, TNNLU Tiruchirappalli, HPNLU Shimla, NLU Tripura, NLU Meghalaya, NLU Sikkim, and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar NLU Sonipat. Some of these universities see rank movement in later rounds and vacancies, particularly for reserved categories and women candidates.
Since you are from Telangana, you should definitely keep NALSAR Hyderabad in your preference list, but only after all higher NLUs, as the domicile quota is limited and usually closes at a much better rank. Still, it is worth trying because domicile and category together can sometimes help in spot or vacancy rounds.
Your best strategy would be to prepare a balanced preference list: first include all top NLUs, then mid-tier NLUs like NLU Odisha and NLIU Bhopal, followed by newer and lower-ranked NLUs where your rank has a stronger chance. Make sure you actively participate in all counselling rounds, including vacancies, as many seats open up after withdrawals.
Cut-offs vary every year depending on seat intake, category distribution, and counselling dynamics, so even if you miss out in early rounds, you should not lose hope. Keep your documents ready, track counselling updates closely, and stay flexible with preferences to maximize your chances of securing an NLU seat.
Among top 100 Universities Globally in the Times Higher Education (THE) Interdisciplinary Science Rankings 2026
Ranked #18 amongst Institutions in India by NIRF | Ranked #1 in India for Academic Reputation by QS Rankings | 16 LPA Highest CTC
AICTE & UGC Approved | NAAC A+ Accredited
NAAC A++ Approved | Curriculum Aligned with BCI & UGC
India's Largest University | BCI approved | Meritorious Scholarships up to 5 lacs |
Integrated Learning – A balanced blend of management and legal education