CLAT Legal Reasoning Passages (Around 450 Words Each)

CLAT Legal Reasoning Passages (Around 450 Words Each)

Ongoing Event

CLAT Application Date:01 Aug' 25 - 31 Oct' 25

Ritika JonwalUpdated on 03 Sep 2025, 07:40 AM IST

Preparing for CLAT 2026 Legal Reasoning can feel challenging, but mastering passage-based questions is the key to scoring high. In the CLAT exam passages of around 450 words test your ability to analyse facts, interpret legal principles, and apply them logically to arrive at the right answer. These passages often cover Constitutional Law, Contract Law, Torts Law, Criminal Law and Current Legal Issues, making practice essential. With the right approach, you can build CLAT 2026 Time Management, accuracy and confidence to tackle even the toughest questions.

This Story also Contains

  1. Understanding the Role of Legal Reasoning Passages in CLAT 2026
  2. Types of CLAT 2026 Legal Reasoning Tested
  3. What to Expect in a 450-word Passage: Structure and Style
  4. Types of Questions Asked in CLAT 2026 Legal Reasoning
  5. Practice Resources for CLAT 2026 Legal Reasoning Preparation
  6. CLAT 2026 CLAT 2026 Legal Reasoning Passage (Around 450 Words Each)
CLAT Legal Reasoning Passages (Around 450 Words Each)
CLAT Legal Reasoning Passages

Understanding the Role of Legal Reasoning Passages in CLAT 2026

The Common Law Admission Test 2026 Legal Reasoning Passages serves a dual role:

  • Application of Law to Facts: They test whether you can take general legal principles and apply them to a new factual scenario.

  • Critical Thinking Skills: Instead of recalling bare provisions, the examiners evaluate your ability to reason logically and interpret situations.

Types of CLAT 2026 Legal Reasoning Tested

Here are the Types of CLAT 2026 Legal Reasoning Topics tested in the CLAT 2026 Exam:

Topics

Sub-Topics

Constitutional Law

Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles.

Contract Law

Agreements, obligations, and breach.

Law of Torts

Negligence, nuisance, defamation.

Criminal Law

Offences, intention, and liability.

Contemporary Legal Issues

Often drawn from real-life or current legal debates.

What to Expect in a 450-word Passage: Structure and Style

  • Each CLAT 2026 Legal Reasoning Passage is usually around 400-450 words, taking about 5-7 minutes to read and answer questions.

  • The style of writing often covers Constitutional Law, Contract Law, Law of Torts, Criminal Law and Current Legal Issues.

  • Expect Complex sentence structures, nuanced arguments and layered perspectives.

  • Passages may present a central theme, followed by analysing facts, interpreting legal principles, and applying them logically.

  • The CLAT 2026 Legal Reasoning Passages can range from formal and descriptive to critical and argumentative, depending on the topic.

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Types of Questions Asked in CLAT 2026 Legal Reasoning

The Legal Reasoning section of CLAT 2026 is intended to assess an aspirant's ability to apply principles of law to factual scenarios. Unlike traditional law exams, this section does not need prior legal knowledge; instead, it assesses analytical ability, logical reasoning, and comprehension. Understanding the different types of questions asked can help aspirants prepare more strategically and score higher.

1. Principles Fact Questions

These are the most common types. A legal principle is presented, followed by a factual situation. Candidates must apply the concept precisely to the facts, without relying on external knowledge.

Example: if a principle indicates that "A person is liable for negligence if he fails to take reasonable care," and the fact pattern depicts a motorist disobeying a red light, you must determine if liability exists.

2. Legal Maxims or Concept-Based Questions

Passages may contain legal maxims, theories, or concepts (e.g., res ipsa loquitur, mens rea, or consideration in contract law). The objective is to apply these principles to specific instances.

3. Inference and Assumption-Based Questions

These questions assess your ability to make logical inferences from a particular reading. Even if the legislation is unknown, the chapter has sufficient pointers to arrive at the proper answer.

4. Contemporary Legal Issues Questions

Some passages are structured around current legal issues (such as data privacy, free expression, and environmental preservation). The goal is to test if you can apply established legal ideas to current situations.

5. Assertion Reasoning Questions

These include an assertion (a legal declaration) and a rationale (a justification). You must decide if both are true and whether the argument accurately explains the statement.

6. Multiple Principles Application Questions

In some passages, many principles are presented. Candidates must determine whether the principle relates to which aspect of the factual circumstance. This necessitates critical reading and analysis abilities.

Practice Resources for CLAT 2026 Legal Reasoning Preparation

Here are the Mock Tests for CLAT 2026 Legal Reasoning:

CLAT 2026 CLAT 2026 Legal Reasoning Passage (Around 450 Words Each)

Here are some CLAT 2026 Legal Reasoning Passages for CLAT 2026 Exam Preparation to assess an aspirant's ability to apply principles of law to factual scenarios.

Passage 1

The concept of "due process" is a cornerstone of legal systems around the world. In the United States, the Due Process Clause of the 14th Amendment guarantees that no state shall "deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law." This principle ensures that laws are applied fairly, without bias, and that individuals are given a fair chance to defend themselves in legal proceedings.

Due process involves two key components: procedural due process and substantive due process. Procedural due process relates to the methods and procedures used by the government to enforce laws. It ensures that individuals are notified of actions taken against them, given an opportunity to be heard, and protected from arbitrary decisions. Substantive due process, on the other hand, focuses on the fairness of the laws themselves, ensuring that laws do not infringe upon fundamental rights that are deeply rooted in the nation's history and traditions.

While due process is a fundamental right in many legal systems, its interpretation varies significantly across jurisdictions. In the context of constitutional law, due process is often examined when evaluating whether laws or governmental actions violate an individual's rights. Courts look at the fairness of the process and the reasonableness of the law in question. This has led to landmark cases in various legal systems where the courts have decided whether a particular law or government action violated the due process rights of individuals.

The concept of due process is not limited to criminal law; it also extends to administrative and civil matters. In civil cases, due process ensures that individuals are given an opportunity to present their case before a court or administrative body. This principle has far-reaching implications in areas such as property rights, family law, and employment disputes. Due process is also invoked when there are concerns about discrimination, where individuals argue that they are being unfairly treated due to race, gender, or other protected characteristics.

Despite the universality of the principle, the application of due process is not always straightforward. Courts often face challenges when deciding what constitutes a fair process or reasonable law, particularly in situations where legal systems must balance competing interests, such as national security versus individual freedoms.

Questions:

1. Which of the following is a primary element of procedural due process?

A) Protection from discrimination

B) The opportunity to be heard

C) The right to free speech

D) Protection from self-incrimination

Answer: B) The opportunity to be heard
Explanation: Procedural due process ensures that individuals are notified of actions taken against them and are given a fair opportunity to present their case, which includes being heard in legal proceedings.

2. What is the focus of substantive due process?

A) The fairness of legal procedures

B) The protection of fundamental rights

C) The right to a trial by jury

D) The notification of individuals about legal actions

Answer: B) The protection of fundamental rights
Explanation: Substantive due process ensures that laws themselves are fair and do not infringe upon fundamental rights that are deeply rooted in the nation's history.

3. Which of the following would most likely invoke a due process concern in a legal system?

A) A law that allows only one political party

B) A law restricting free speech in a public space

C) A law requiring a fair trial before any punishment
D) A law that taxes only one race

Answer: C) A law requiring a fair trial before any punishment
Explanation: Due process ensures fairness in legal proceedings, so a law that mandates a fair trial would fall under its concern.

4. What is the significance of the 14th Amendment in the context of due process?

A) It grants freedom of speech

B) It guarantees that no state shall deprive any person of life, liberty, or property without due process of law

C) It ensures equal protection under the law

D) It protects the right to a jury trial

Answer: B) It guarantees that no state shall deprive any person of life, liberty, or property without due process of law
Explanation: The 14th Amendment's Due Process Clause guarantees fair treatment under the law and prevents unfair deprivation of rights.

5. Which of the following areas is NOT typically affected by the principle of due process?

A) Criminal law

B) Property rights

C) Family law
D) Taxation laws

Answer: D) Taxation laws

Explanation: While due process applies to criminal, property, and family law, taxation laws are typically governed by other legal principles.

Passage 2

In 2025, the Indian Parliament enacted the “Right to Safe Digital Spaces Act” (RSDSA), aiming to protect individuals from online harassment and abuse. The Act defines “online harassment” as any repeated or severe conduct using electronic communication that intentionally causes substantial emotional distress to another person. The RSDSA mandates that all digital platforms operating in India must provide users with mechanisms to report harassment and are required to act within 24 hours of receiving a complaint. The Act also imposes a duty on platforms to remove or block content found to be harassing after a preliminary review.

Section 7 of the RSDSA states: “No person shall, utilizing electronic communication, repeatedly send messages, images, or videos that are threatening, abusive, or intended to cause substantial emotional distress to another person.” Section 9 provides that platforms failing to act on valid complaints within the stipulated time may be penalized by regulatory authorities.

In a recent incident, Ms. R, a journalist, began receiving threatening and abusive messages on a popular social media platform after publishing an article on a controversial topic. Despite reporting the messages, the platform failed to take any action for five days. The messages continued, causing Ms. R significant emotional distress. She then filed a complaint with the regulatory authorities, alleging violation of her rights under the RSDSA.

Questions:

1. Under the RSDSA, which of the following actions is required from digital platforms upon receiving a valid complaint of online harassment?

a) Investigate the complaint within 48 hours.
b) Act on the complaint within 24 hours.
c) Notify the user within 24 hours.
d) Remove the content within 72 hours.

Answer: b) Act on the complaint within 24 hours.
Explanation: According to the RSDSA, platforms must act within 24 hours upon receiving a complaint about online harassment, as stated in the passage.

2. What is the primary purpose of the RSDSA as outlined in the passage?

a) To regulate online content.
b) To protect individuals from online harassment and abuse.
c) To promote digital literacy.
d) To monitor social media platforms.

Answer: b) To protect individuals from online harassment and abuse.
Explanation: The primary aim of the RSDSA is to protect individuals from online harassment and abuse, as mentioned in the passage.

3. In the case of Ms R, the social media platform's failure to act on her complaint within the stipulated time constitutes a violation of which section of the RSDSA?

a) Section 7.
b) Section 9.
c) Section 5.
d) Section 3.

Answer: b) Section 9.
Explanation: Section 9 of the RSDSA holds platforms accountable for failing to act on valid complaints within the specified time, which is what occurred in Ms. R's case.

4. If a person repeatedly sends threatening messages to another person online, under the RSDSA, this behaviour is classified as:

a) Defamation.
b) Online harassment.
c) Cyberbullying.
d) Cyberstalking.

Answer: b) Online harassment.
Explanation: Repeated threatening online messages are categorized as online harassment under the RSDSA, as the passage defines this type of behavior.

5. Ms. R's emotional distress due to the continued threatening messages is an example of:

a) Physical harm.
b) Substantial emotional distress.
c) Defamation.
d) Trespass.

Answer: b) Substantial emotional distress.
Explanation: The passage states that online harassment under the RSDSA can cause substantial emotional distress, which is what Ms. R experienced.

Passage 3

In a landmark case, the Supreme Court ruled that the right to free speech is not absolute and can be restricted under certain conditions. This includes situations where speech may incite violence, create public disorder, or threaten national security. However, the Court also emphasized that any restriction must be reasonable and justifiable, subject to scrutiny by courts. The judgment balances the protection of individual freedoms with the need to preserve public order and security, noting that while freedom of expression is essential in a democratic society, it must be exercised responsibly.

Questions:

1. Which of the following best summarizes the Supreme Court's ruling on free speech?

A) Free speech cannot be restricted under any circumstances.

B) Free speech can only be restricted in cases of national security concerns.

C) Free speech can be restricted if it incites violence or creates public disorder.

D) Free speech is absolute and cannot be challenged by the courts.

Answer: C) Free speech can be restricted if it incites violence or creates public disorder.
Explanation: The Court stated that free speech is not absolute and can be restricted if it leads to violence, public disorder, or threatens national security.

2. What is the main criterion for restricting free speech according to the Court's judgment?

A) The need for national security.

B) The reasonableness and justifiability of the restriction.

C) The impact on public opinion.

D) The intent behind the speech.

Answer: B) The reasonableness and justifiability of the restriction.
Explanation: The Court emphasized that any restriction on free speech must be reasonable and justifiable, subject to court scrutiny.

3. Which of the following statements reflects the Court's view on the balance between individual freedoms and public order?

A) Public order should never be prioritized over individual freedoms.

B) Public order can only be prioritized in cases involving national security.

C) Public order must be preserved, but individual freedoms are paramount.

D) The preservation of public order may justify reasonable restrictions on individual freedoms.

Answer: D) The preservation of public order may justify reasonable restrictions on individual freedoms.
Explanation: The Court acknowledged the importance of both individual freedoms and public order, stating that public order may justify reasonable restrictions.

4. According to the judgment, who has the authority to scrutinize restrictions on free speech?

A) The government alone.

B) The general public.

C) Courts.

D) Political parties.

Answer: C) Courts.
Explanation: The Court stated that restrictions on free speech must be subject to judicial scrutiny.

5. What aspect of free speech does the judgment emphasize as essential in a democratic society?

A) The unrestricted right to express any opinion.

B) The responsibility of exercising free speech.

C) The freedom of the press to report on government matters.

D) The need for speeches to promote national unity.

Answer: B) The responsibility of exercising free speech.
Explanation: The judgment emphasized that while free speech is essential, it must be exercised responsibly, balancing individual rights and public order.

You may also check:

CLAT Sample Paper 2026 with Answer Key- Careers360
Download the CLAT Sample Paper 2026 PDF featuring the latest exam pattern with descriptive-type questions for effective preparation.
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Questions related to CLAT

On Question asked by student community

Have a question related to CLAT ?

It is always better to take the CLAT exam right after Class 12 if your goal is to build a career in law, because CLAT UG is specifically designed for admission into integrated five-year law programs like BA LLB, BCom LLB, or BBA LLB. Appearing after Class 12 saves you time, as you complete both graduation and law together in a single course. On the other hand, if you first complete graduation and then plan for law, you will not be eligible for CLAT UG but instead for CLAT PG, which is meant for admission into LLM programs. This path takes longer, because you first spend three or four years on graduation and then add another three years in an LLB program if you choose not to go for an integrated course. So, if you are already sure about pursuing law as your career, writing CLAT right after Class 12 is the smarter and time-saving option, while writing it after graduation makes sense only if you are considering higher studies in law or a shift in career later.

For CLAT, the most important topics are from  Legal Reasoning, Current Affairs & GK, the Indian Constitution, English Language, Quantitative Techniques and Logical Reasoning. For a brief detail you can go through the following link: https://law.careers360.com/articles/clat-important-topics

Thank You.

Hi dear candidate,

Both the colleges Maharaja Agrasen (MAIMS) or Gitarattan (GIBS) are affiliated to IP University and allows admission either by CLAT or IPU CET Law. Without either of these exams, your admission is NOT accepted there. You can try looking for management quota seats in these colleges if you have got good marks in 12th class.

BEST REGARDS

Hi dear candidate,

You can easily register yourself for CLAT exam by visiting the Consortium of NLUs official website and follow these steps:

  • Register yourself with your EMail ID, phone number and password.
  • Log in using OTP
  • Complete application form by entering details, selecting program (UG/PG) and uploading required documents mentioned there.
  • Then at last, review the application and pay the registration fees.
  • Download your confirmation slip.

Know the complete process at:

CLAT Registration 2026 (Started): Documents Required, Application Fee, Link, Steps to Apply

BEST REGARDS

Right now there is no official e-guide for CLAT 2026 released by the Consortium of NLUs. They usually provide sample questions and model papers closer to the exam, but not a complete guide at this stage.

You can still prepare using free study material available online. Many websites provide free downloadable PDFs, mock tests, and previous year papers that will help you understand the pattern and practice important topics.

If you want a structured book, there are two good options. The Oswaal CLAT & AILET guide has past year solved papers, topic-wise questions, and mock tests. The Arihant CLAT Conqueror book has more than 3000 practice questions with solutions. Both are helpful depending on whether you prefer solved papers or more practice questions.