CLAT 2027 Daily Questions Series: 24th September Maths and English Questions and Answers

CLAT 2027 Daily Questions: Math & English

CLAT 2027 Current Affairs from Daily News: September 24, 2026

Given below are practice questions for the CLAT 2027 current affairs section.

Q1: Which constitutional provision deals with the Election Commission's powers?

A. Article 320

B. Article 324

C. Article 356

D. Article 368

Answer: B

Q2: Who replaced the CJI on the selection panel under the 2023 law?

A. Attorney General

B. Union Cabinet Minister

C. Cabinet Secretary

D. Chief Election Commissioner

Answer: B

Q3: Which judgment had earlier included the CJI in the selection panel?

A. Anoop Baranwal

B. Kesavananda Bharati

C. S.R. Bommai

D. Minerva Mills

Answer: A

Q4: Which case formally clarified the Collegium system?

A. Kesavananda Bharati

B. Third Judges Case

C. Golaknath

D. Minerva Mills

Answer: B

Q5: Justice Datta's remarks on the Collegium came in a case concerning:

A. Uniform Civil Code

B. Appointment of CEC and Election Commissioners

C. Right to Privacy

D. National Judicial Appointments Commission

Answer: B

Q6: Judicial independence is recognised as part of the:

A. Doctrine of Severability

B. Basic Structure Doctrine

C. Doctrine of Pith and Substance

D. Doctrine of Colourable Legislation

Answer: B

Q7: On what date is the India-EU FTA scheduled to be signed?

A. November 16, 2026

B. December 16, 2026

C. January 16, 2027

D. February 16, 2027

Answer: B

Q8: What percentage of Indian export items will see the EU drop tariffs under the FTA?

A. 90%

B. 95%

C. 97.5%

D. 99.5%

Answer: D

Q9: Which EU institution's approval means the FTA will not require separate ratification by each EU member country?

A. European Commission

B. European Council

C. European Central Bank

D. Council of Europe

Answer: B

Q10: What is the value of the contract signed between the MoD and Bharat Dynamics Limited for glide bombs?

A. ₹610.79 crore

B. ₹710.79 crore

C. ₹810.79 crore

D. ₹910.79 crore

Answer: C

Q11: How many Satellite Smart Anti-Airfield Weapons (SAT-SAAW) were contracted for the IAF?

A. 100

B. 130

C. 160

D. 200

Answer: C

Q12: Under which procurement category was the SAT-SAAW contract signed?

A. Buy (Global)

B. Buy (Indian-IDDM)

C. Buy and Make

D. Strategic Partnership Model

Answer: B

Q13: According to the Climate Impact Lab report, how many additional heat-related deaths could India see between September 2026 and February 2027?

A. About 10,800

B. About 15,800

C. About 25,800

D. About 45,100

Answer: B

Q14: What term does the report use to describe the current El Niño event?

A. Mega El Niño

B. Super El Niño

C. Hyper El Niño

D. Extreme El Niño

Answer: B

Q15: What was India's national rainfall deficit as of September 22, 2026, according to the report?

A. About 5% below normal

B. About 10% below normal

C. About 15% below normal

D. About 25% below normal

Answer: C

Practice Questions for CLAT 2027 Math

Daily practice questions for CLAT 2027 math are extracted from the CLAT 2025 question paper.

Passage 1

According to the estimates of the World Inequality Report 2022, in India, men earn 82 percent of the labour income, whereas women earn 18 percent of it. A woman agricultural field labourer makes Rs. 88 per day lesser than her male counterpart, according to the Ministry of Agriculture’s data for 2020-21. While a man is paid Rs. 383 a day on average, a woman makes a mere Rs. 294 a day. The gap in their daily wages is more than the cost of two kilograms of rice. This gap differs from State to State. Field laborers, for instance, make the most money in Kerala. While a man gets Rs. 789 per day, a woman is paid Rs. 537. While this is the highest amount paid to a woman labourer in a State, it is also Rs. 252 less than what her male counterpart was paid. As of 2020-21, Tamil Nadu has the highest gender wage gap among agricultural field laborers at 112 per cent. It is followed by Goa (61 percent) and Kerala. The wage gap is the lowest in Jharkhand and Gujarat (6 percent each), but the women laborers there get paid just Rs. 239 and Rs. 247 per day, respectively.

Men earn more than women across all forms of work, with the gap greatest for the self-employed. In 2023, male self-employed workers earned 2.8 times that of women. In contrast, male regular wage workers earned 24% more than women and male casual workers earned 48% more. The gender gap in earnings is still a persistent phenomenon. However, there are differences in trends. The gender gap has increased for self-employed workers, while falling for regular wage workers. Male regular wage workers earned 34% more than women from 2019 to 2022, with the gap falling to 24% in 2023.

Q1. If a female casual worker earns Rs. 200 per hour, what is the hourly wage of a male casual worker, given that male casual workers earn 48% more than female casual workers?

(A) Rs. 480

(B) Rs. 296

(C) Rs. 248

(D) Cannot be determined

Q2. Assume that in 2022, the earnings gap between male and female self-employed workers was 2.5 times. In 2023, the gap increased to 2.8 times. What is the percentage increase in the earnings gap for self-employed workers from 2022 to 2023?

(A) 12%

(B) 5%

(C) 4.8%

(D) 24%

Q3. Which of the following statements is correct?

(A) The wage gap between Goa and Kerala is less than that of Tamil Nadu

(B) The wage gap of Tamil Nadu is greater than that of Jharkhand and Gujarat

(C) Both (a) and (b)

(D) None of the above

Q4. If the wages paid to men working in the agricultural sector in Goa are Rs. 335 on average, what is the amount of wages paid to women in the region?

(A) Rs. 204 approx.

(B) Rs. 330 approx.

(C) Rs. 239 approx.

(D) None of these

Q5. With reference to the information in Q1 above, which region of the below-mentioned states offers the lowest wages to the women workers in any sector?

(A) Gujarat

(B) Goa

(C) Kerala

(D) Jharkhand

Q6. In 2023, if the average annual income of female self-employed workers is Rs. 250, how much do male self-employed workers earn on average?

(A) Rs. 550

(B) Rs. 673

(C) Rs. 700

(D) None of these

Passage 2

Mr. Das is working in a construction company. He has a family, including his wife and a daughter. His total monthly income includes a salary of Rs. 9228/- and a 10% house rent allowance. Due to increasing inflation, he is keeping a home budget that accounts for the income and expenses of the household. Out of his total monthly income, he spends 25% on food expenses, 18% on paying the house rent, 9% on entertainment, 23% on the education of his child, 13% on medical expenses, and he saves 12% of his total monthly income.

Based on the above information, answer the following questions.

Q1. How much money remains for other expenses after the house rent and savings?

(A) Rs. 7061/-

(B) Rs. 7601/-

(C) Rs. 7106/-

(D) Rs. 7016/-

Q2. If the expenditure on food and entertainment is increased by 10% due to inflation in prices, what will be the new percentage of savings in the same monthly salary?

(A) 8.4%

(B) 8.6%

(C) 8.8%

(D) 8.2%

Q3. How much total money has he spent on food and entertainment?

(A) Rs. 3541/-

(B) Rs. 3461/-

(C) Rs. 3371/-

(D) None of the above

Q4. How much money does Mr. Das pay as house rent?

(A) Rs. 1827 /-

(B) Rs. 1661 /-

(C) Rs. 1783 /-

(D) Rs. 1935 /-

Q5. If Mr. Das gets 12% annual interest on the savings and he wishes to save Rs. 30,000/- in two years period, how much extra should he save in the next year?

(A) Rs. 1200/-

(B) Rs. 1300/-

(C) Rs. 1400/-

(D) There is no need for saving

Q6. Which of the following is true regarding the home budget of Mr. Das?

(A) The total amount spent on house rent, entertainment and education is greater than the total amount spent on food expenses, medical expenses and savings

(B) The total amount spent on entertainment, medical expenses and education is equal to the total amount spent on house rent, food expenses and savings

(C) The total amount spent on savings, medical expenses and education is less than the total amount spent on house rent, food expenses and entertainment

(D) None of the above

Practice Questions for CLAT 2027 English

Given below are two passages from the previous year’s CLAT question papers from the English section. Solve the follow-up questions after carefully reading the passages.

Passage 1

In 1973, only 45 of the world’s 151 countries were counted as ‘free’ by Freedom House, a nongovernmental organization that produces quantitative measures of civil and political rights for countries around the world. The following generation saw momentous political change, with democracies and market-oriented economies spreading in virtually every part of the world except for the Arab Middle East. This transformation was Samuel Huntington’s third wave of democratization; liberal democracy as the default form of government became part of the accepted political landscape at the beginning of the twenty-first century.

Underlying these changes in political systems was a massive social transformation as well. The shift to democracy was a result of millions of formerly passive individuals around the world organizing themselves and participating in the political life of their societies. This social mobilization was driven by a host of factors: greatly expanded access to education that made people more aware of themselves and the political world around them; information technology, which facilitated the rapid spread of ideas and knowledge; cheap travel and communications that allowed people to vote with their feet if they didn’t like their government; and greater prosperity, which induced people to demand better protection of their rights.

The third wave crested after the late 1990s; however, a ‘democratic recession’ emerged in the first decade of the twenty-first century. Approximately one in five countries that had been part of the third wave either reverted to authoritarianism or saw a significant erosion of democratic institutions. Freedom House noted that 2009 marked the fourth consecutive year in which freedom had declined around the world, the first time this had happened since it established its measures of freedom in 1973. [279 words] (Extracted from The Origins of Political Order by Francis Fukuyama)

Q1. Which of the following aspects is most critical in understanding Freedom House’s evaluation process?

(A) The methodology by which it quantifies the relative freedoms in different political systems

(B) Its emphasis on electoral participation and voter turnout in measuring democracy

(C) Its role in advising governments on democratic reforms based on its rankings

(D) Its primary focus on economic disparities within democracies

Q2. What does the phrase ‘vote with their feet’ imply in the context of the passage?

(A) Engaging in electoral processes to demand political change

(B) Demonstrating political preferences through public protests

(C) Migrating to countries with better governance or conditions

(D) Participating in local government initiatives and reforms

Q3. The term ‘third wave of democratization’ as used in the passage refers to:

(A) The rise of communism in Eastern Europe

(B) The spread of democracy and market-oriented economies

(C) The decline of authoritarian regimes in the 1960s

(D) The global movement for civil rights

Q4. Which of the following was not mentioned as a factor contributing to social mobilization and the shift to democracy?

(A) Increased access to education

(B) Expanding information technology

(C) Heightened global military presence

(D) Greater prosperity

Q5. According to this passage, when was the first time freedom declined around the world

(A) 1973

(B) 1990

(C) 2006

(D) 2009

Passage 2

My kinsman and I were returning to Calcutta from our Puja trip when we encountered an unusual man on the train. At first, judging from his dress and bearing, we mistook him for an up-country boorish man. But as soon as he began to speak, our impression changed. He discoursed on every subject with such confidence that one might think the ‘Disposer of All Things’ sought his counsel in every decision. Until then, we had been perfectly content, unaware of hidden forces shaping the world—that the Russians were advancing, that the English were pursuing secret policies, and that confusion among native chiefs had reached its peak. Our new acquaintance, however, hinted at such matters with a sly smile, remarking:

“There are more things in heaven and earth, Horatio, than are reported in your newspapers.”

Having never before travelled beyond our homes, we were struck dumb with wonder at his manner. No matter how trivial the topic, he could quote science, comment on the Vedas, or recite quatrains from Persian poets. Since we possessed no real knowledge of science, the Vedas, or Persian literature, our admiration for him only grew. My kinsman, a theosophist, became convinced that our fellow passenger was inspired by some strange magnetism, occult power, or astral body. He listened with devotional rapture even to the most common place remarks and secretly noted down his words. I suspect our extraordinary companion noticed this and was quietly pleased. When the train reached the junction, we gathered in the waiting room to await our connection. It was 10 p.m., and as the train was expected to be delayed owing to some fault in the lines, I spread my bed on the table and prepared to sleep. But just then, the extraordinary man began spinning a tale, and of course, I could not close my eyes all night. (307 words) [Extracted with edits from Rabindranath Tagore’s “The Hungry Stones”]

Q1. The narrator and his kinsman’s initial impression of the “unusual man” highlights which theme most strongly?

(A) The deceptive nature of appearances

(B) The superiority of Western education

(C) The danger of blind faith

(D) The reliability of cultural stereotypes

Q2. Which literary device is most evident in the narrator’s line: “one might think the Disposer of All Things sought his counsel in every decision”?

(A) Irony

(B) Euphemism

(C) Allegory

(D) Hyperbole

Q3. The word “theosophist” means:

(A) Skeptic

(B) Mystic

(C) Agnostic

(D) Materialist

Q4. The word “Boorish” means:

(A) Discourteous

(B) Genteel

(C) Well-bred

(D) Courtly

Q5. The narrator’s suspicion that the extraordinary man was “quietly pleased” suggests:

(A) The man was genuinely humble and embarrassed by the attention

(B) The man wished to avoid any recognition of his authority

(C) The man was indifferent to how others perceived him

(D) The man derived satisfaction from impressing and influencing others