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    CLAT 2027 Daily Questions Series: 19th & 20th September - Logical Reasoning, English Section Questions and Ans
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    • CLAT 2027 Daily Questions Series: 19th & 20th September - Logical Reasoning, English Section Questions and Ans

    CLAT 2027 Daily Questions Series: 19th & 20th September - Logical Reasoning, English Section Questions and Ans

    JasmineUpdated on 21 Sep 2026, 03:10 PM IST

    CLAT 2027 daily question series for September 19 and 20, 2026 covers questions from daily news and from the previous year’s question papers. This series includes topic-wise passages followed by multiple-choice questions from the logical reasoning and English sections. Both logical reasoning and English carry 20% weightage respectively in the CLAT 2027 exam. The total number of questions varies from 22 to 26 in each section. Candidates preparing for the CLAT 2027 exam on December 6, 2026 must refer to the daily question series to revise for the exam.

    This Story also Contains

    1. CLAT 2027 Current Affairs from Daily News: September 19 & 20, 2026
    2. CLAT 2027 Daily Questions: Logical Reasoning & English
    3. Daily Practice Questions for CLAT 2027 Logical Reasoning
    4. Daily Practice Questions for CLAT 2027 English
    CLAT 2027 Daily Questions Series: 19th & 20th September - Logical Reasoning, English Section Questions and Ans
    CLAT 2027 Daily Questions Series: 19th & 20th September Logical Reasoning, English Section Questions and Answers

    CLAT 2027 Current Affairs from Daily News: September 19 & 20, 2026

    Q1. The Anti-Defection Law is contained in which Schedule of the Constitution?

    A) Ninth Schedule
    B) Tenth Schedule
    C) Eleventh Schedule
    D) Twelfth Schedule

    Answer: B

    Q2. Danam Nagender was disqualified under which provision?

    A) Article 189
    B) Article 190
    C) Article 191(2)
    D) Article 192

    Answer: C

    Q3. Which High Court passed the disqualification order against Danam Nagender?

    A) Andhra Pradesh High Court
    B) Telangana High Court
    C) Karnataka High Court
    D) Bombay High Court

    Answer: B

    Q4. Which Article of the Constitution deals with prohibition of intoxicating drinks?

    A) Article 44
    B) Article 46
    C) Article 47
    D) Article 48

    Answer: C

    Q5. The Supreme Court case concerned Rules 18A and 18B of which rules?

    A) Gujarat Prohibition Rules
    B) Maharashtra Poisons Rules
    C) Bihar Excise Rules
    D) Indian Penal Code Rules

    Answer: B

    Q6. Which State has followed a prohibition policy since 1960, as discussed in the judgment?

    A) Bihar
    B) Gujarat
    C) Maharashtra
    D) Punjab

    Answer: B

    Q7. Which provision of the BNSS was relevant to the default bail granted in this case?

    A) Section 167(2)
    B) Section 187(3)
    C) Section 41
    D) Section 18

    Answer: B

    Q8. Under which law was Matthew Aaron Van Dyke originally booked?

    A) Immigration and Foreigners Act
    B) Passport Act
    C) UAPA
    D) Foreigners Registration Act

    Answer: C

    Q9. What was the chargesheet deadline referred to in the case?

    A) 90 days
    B) 120 days
    C) 150 days
    D) 180 days

    Answer: D

    Q10. Which regulator rejected Tata Sons' request to surrender its NBFC registration?

    A) SEBI
    B) RBI
    C) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
    D) NCLT

    Answer: B

    Q11. Tata Sons wanted to be classified as which type of company?

    A) Non-Operating Financial Holding Company
    B) Core Investment Company
    C) Housing Finance Company
    D) Asset Reconstruction Company

    Answer: B

    Q12. Which requirement applies to upper-layer NBFCs under the RBI framework?

    A) Reduced capital requirements
    B) Mandatory stock exchange listing
    C) Exemption from RBI oversight
    D) Automatic merger with banks

    Answer: B

    Q13. What is the name of the Act signed by U.S. President Donald Trump?

    A) Lindsey O. Graham Sanctioning Russia and Iran Act, 2026
    B) Countering Russian Aggression Act
    C) Russia Trade Restriction Act
    D) Global Energy Security Act

    Answer: A

    Q14. What is the maximum tariff authorised under the Act on major buyers of Russian oil and gas?

    A) 25%
    B) 50%
    C) 75%
    D) 100%

    Answer: D

    Q15. Who called for "military deterrence" in response to the sanctions?

    A) Vladimir Putin
    B) Volodymyr Zelenskyy
    C) Dmitry Medvedev
    D) Sergei Lavrov

    Answer: C

    CLAT 2027 Daily Questions: Logical Reasoning & English

    Section

    Topic

    Number of Questions

    CLAT Logical Reasoning

    Analytical reasoning

    2 passages (13 total questions)

    English

    • Inference

    • Vocabulary in context

    • Factual comprehension

    • Statement-based questions

    2 passages (10 total questions)

    Daily Practice Questions for CLAT 2027 Logical Reasoning

    Below are two passages with follow-up questions from the CLAT 2027 logical reasoning section. The passages are derived from the previous year’s CLAT exam.

    Passage 1

    In a language laboratory, students were given an interesting puzzle involving the word "ELECTROCARDIOGRAPH." The teacher explained that such exercises not only test logical skills but also sharpen attention to detail. According to the challenge, the word had to undergo a series of transformations. First, the class was asked to take the first half of the letters, reverse their order, and make the arrangement of letters look quite different from the original. Next, the students were told to identify the last but one letter of the original word and place it at the very beginning, a step that changed the opening appearance of the sequence completely. Finally, as a finishing touch, they had to add the letter 'S' at the end. Following these steps carefully would lead them to the correct transformed word, and only those who adhered to each condition in the exact order could solve the puzzle successfully. (150 words)

    Q1. Which letter will be exactly in the middle?

    (A) L

    (B) R

    (C) D

    (D) E

    Q2. How many vowels will be to the left of the middle letter?

    (A) 2

    (B) 1

    (C) 4

    (D) 3

    Q3. Which of the two vowels will be adjoining each other?

    (A) IE

    (B) IO

    (C) AE

    (D) AO

    Q4. Which vowel will have a consonant to the left but a vowel to the right of it?

    (A) I

    (B) Ο

    (C) A

    (D) E

    Q5. Name the letter sandwiched between two vowels?

    (A) R and T

    (B) C and L

    (C) R and L

    (D) D and R

    Q6. Which letter is prefixed to the word after the first half is reversed?

    (A) G

    (B) P

    (C) H

    (D) S

    Passage 2

    On the night of October 12th, the "Sunburst Medallion" was stolen from the highly secured display case in the city museum. The theft occurred sometime between the museum closing at 10:00 PM and the night guard, Mr. Hemant, completing his final round at 1:00 AM. Three primary suspects were identified, all of whom had recently been dismissed from their museum positions: Anjali, the former curator; Bharat, the former security expert; and Chitra, the former exhibits designer.

    Here are the established facts and their alibis:

    • The security system logs show that the display case was opened using a specificfive-digit code, which only Anjali and the museum director (who was out of the country) knew.

    • Bharat's alibi is that he was at a distant relative's birthday party from 8:00 PM to 1:30 AM. Multiple independent witnesses confirmed his presence throughout the entire period.

    • Chitra's alibi is that she was working late at a downtown graphic design studio. A time-stamped security camera from the studio's entrance shows her entering at 7:00 PM and exiting at 11:45 PM. The studio is a 20-minute drive from the museum.

    • Mr. Hemant, the night guard, stated he checked the medallion at 10:30 PM, and it was still there.

    Further investigation revealed that a small, distinctive silver button was found near the display case. Anjali is known to frequently wear a coat with similar unique silver buttons. The security expert, Bharat, had previously boasted that he could remotely disable a certain type of magnetic lock-the same type used on the medallion's case-without needing the code, though the log suggested the code was used. (269 words)

    Q1. Identifying the Most Likely Suspect

    Based only on the fact that the five-digit code was used to open the display case, who is the only plausible suspect among the three?

    (A) Anjali

    (B) Bharat

    (C) Chitra

    (D) Both Anjali and Chitra

    Q2. Evaluating Alibis and Time Constraints

    The theft occurred between 10:00 PM and 1:00 AM, but the night guard saw the medallion at 10:30 PM. Given Chitra's alibi, what is the earliest time she could have reached the museum?

    (A) 11:45 PM

    (B) 12:05 AM

    (C) 12:45 AM

    (D) 10:50 PM

    Q3. Deduction and Contradictory Evidence

    If the theft was committed by Bharat, which established fact must be incorrect, based on the provided information?

    (A) The medallion was present at 10:30 PM

    (B) The security logs indicating the code was used

    (C) The museum closing time of 10:00 PМ

    (D) The time frame of his alibi (8:00 PM to 1:30 AM)

    Q4. Analyzing Accessory Evidence

    The discovery of the silver button near the display case is the most incriminating evidence against which suspect, and why?

    (A) Bharat, because he had the technical expertise to get close to the case

    (B) Chitra, because she was near the museum late that night

    (C) Anjali, because she is known to wear a coat with similar buttons

    (D) Mr. Hemant, as he was the last person to check the area

    Q5. Identifying the Logical Flaw in the Argument:

    A detective argues: "Since Bharat has a confirmed, continuous alibi covering the entire time window of the theft (10:30 PM to 1:00 AM), he cannot be the thief." What principle of logic supports this detective's conclusion?

    (A) Correlation does not imply causation

    (B) If an event requires presence, confirmed absence proves innocence

    (C) The rule of double jeopardy

    (D) The burden of proof lies with the accuser

    Q6. Drawing a Strongest Conclusion

    Considering all the facts (the code being used, the silver button, and the confirmed alibis), which is the most reasonable inference?

    (A) Bharat must have had an accomplice who knew the code

    (B) Chitra's alibi is false because she had enough time to commit the crime after leaving the studio

    (C) link Anjali to the is the most likely suspect because the code was used and she has direct physical evidence (the button)

    (D) Mr. Hemant is secretly the thief and is trying to frame the former employees

    Q7. Assessing Necessary Conditions

    What condition is necessary for Chitra to have stolen the medallion?

    (A) She must know the five-digit code

    (B) She must have left the graphic design studio before 11.45 pm

    (C) The theft must have occurred after she left the studio and before 1 am

    (D) She must have worked with Anjali to disable the locks

    Daily Practice Questions for CLAT 2027 English

    Below are some daily English practice questions from previous years’ CLAT question papers.

    Passage 1

    The adoption of the Non-Cooperation Movement by the Congress gave it a new energy and from January 1921 it began to register considerable success all over the country. Gandhiji undertook a nation-wide tour during which he addressed hundreds of meetings and met a large number of political workers. In the first month, thousands of students left their educational institutions and joined more than 800 national schools and colleges that had sprung up all over the country. Gandhiji had promised Swaraj within a year, if his programme was adopted. The Non-Cooperation Movement demonstrated that it commanded the support and sympathy of vast sections of the Indian people. Its reach among many sections of Indian peasants, workers, artisans etc, had been demonstrated. The spatial spread of the movement was also nation-wide. Some areas were more active than others, but there were few that showed no signs of activity at all. The capacity of the ‘poor dumb millions’ of India to take part in modern nationalist politics was also demonstrated. This was the first time that nationalists from the towns, students from schools and colleges or even the educated and politically aware in the villages had made a serious attempt to bring the ideology and the movement into their midst. The tremendous participation of different communities in the movement, and the maintenance of communal unity, despite the Malabar developments, was in itself no mean achievement. There is hardly any doubt that it was minority participation that gave the movement its truly mass character in many areas. And it was, indeed, unfortunate that this most positive feature of the movement was not to be repeated in later years once communalism began to take its toll. [324 words] [Extracted, with edits and revisions, from India’s Struggle for Independence1857-1947, by Bipin Chandra and Others, Penguin Books, 1989.]

    Q1. From the passage, it is evident that:

    (A) The idea of Swaraj seemed futile

    (B) The non-cooperation movement was a complete success

    (C) The non-cooperation movement gained the sympathy of the majority of Indians

    (D) The Indian National Congress represented a microscopic minority

    Q2. The term “poor dumb millions” refers to-

    (A) The vast number of common people who are impoverished

    (B) Large number of common people who are hearing impaired

    (C) A large number of people who are vulnerable

    (D) The vast number of people who are impoverished and uneducated

    Q3. Which of the statements is true?

    (A) The Swaraj movement happened before the Non-Cooperation Movement

    (B) The Non-Cooperation Movement failed due to sudden withdrawal

    (C) There was a fine show of communal unity in the movement

    (D) The rich and the educated kept themselves away from the Non-Cooperation Movement

    Q4. The main idea of the passage is-

    (A) The Non-Cooperation Movement did not give impetus to the future movements

    (B) The movement made the Indians realize their potential to fight against the mighty British

    (C) The British became fearful and worried about Gandhiji’s leadership and cooperation of Indians

    (D) That the most positive feature of the movement was that it was repeated in later years

    Q5. The word “Communalism” in the above passage refers to-

    (A) Religious identity

    (B) Caste identity

    (C) Regional identity

    (D) Secularism

    Passage 2

    There were humans long before there was history. The archaic humans loved, played, formed close friendships and competed for status and power, but so did chimpanzees, baboons and elephants. There was nothing special about them. Nobody, least of all humans themselves, had any inkling that their descendants would one day walk on the moon, split the atom, fathom the genetic code and write history books. The most important thing to know about prehistoric humans is that they were incognisant animals with no more impact on their environment than gorillas, fireflies or jellyfish. Biologists classify organisms into species. Animals are said to belong to the same species if they tend to mate with each other, giving birth to fertile offspring. Horses and donkeys have a recent common ancestor and share many physical traits. They will mate if induced to do so, but their offspring, called mules, are sterile. Mutations in donkey DNA can therefore never cross over to horses, or vice versa. The two types of animals are consequently considered two distinct species, moving along separate evolutionary paths. By contrast, a bulldog and a spaniel may look very different, but they are members of the same species, sharing the same DNA pool. [203 words] (Extracted from Sapiens: A Brief History of Humankind by Yuval Noah Harari)

    Q1. Which of the following can be inferred as the most significant characteristic of prehistoric humans, as per the passage?

    (A) Their conscious effort to alter and shape their environment for survival

    (B) Their complex social organization and clear hierarchical structures that set them apart from other species

    (C) Their evolutionary divergence was marked by warfare and the pursuit of dominance over rival species

    (D) Their inability to distinguish themselves from other species in terms of environmental impact

    Q2. In the context of the passage, the term ‘incognisant’ most likely means:

    (A) Lacking intelligence

    (B) Unaware of their future potential

    (C) Incapable of social interaction

    (D) Disinterested in the environment

    Q3. Which of the following best explains why humans did not initially stand out among other organisms?

    (A) They had fewer offspring than other species

    (B) Their behaviours were not unique compared to other animals

    (C) They did not yet evolve the ability to use tools

    (D) They lacked the genetic capacity to develop language

    Q4. According to the passage, what determines whether two animals belong to the same species?

    (A) Their ability to produce fertile offspring

    (B) Their physical appearance and size

    (C) Their shared evolutionary ancestor

    (D) Their capacity to adapt to the environment

    Q5. The passage explains the concept of species classification by

    (A) Highlighting the behavioural differences between species like horses, donkeys, bulldogs and spaniels

    (B) Focusing on the DNA pool they share

    (C) Contrasting horses and bulldogs with donkeys and spaniels to explain reproductive compatibility

    (D) Discussing the environmental impact of different species like horses and donkeys, and bulldogs and spaniels

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