CLAT 2027 Daily Questions Series: 5th October GK & Legal Reasoning and Answers

CLAT 2027 Daily Questions: GK and Legal Reasoning

CLAT 2027 Current Affairs from Daily News: October 5, 2026

Q1. Which Article provides for elections based on adult suffrage?

A. Article 324

B. Article 325

C. Article 326

D. Article 329

Answer: C

Q2. According to Justice Bhuyan, except for a dead voter, what is required before deleting a name from the electoral roll?

A. A police report

B. Notice and hearing

C. A court order

D. Approval of Parliament

Answer: B

Q3. Under which law was only about 14% of the population allowed to vote before Independence, as mentioned by the judge?

A. Government of India Act, 1919

B. Indian Councils Act, 1909

C. Government of India Act, 1935

D. Indian Independence Act, 1947

Answer: C

Q4. According to the Delhi High Court, what does a valid visa give a foreigner?
A. An absolute right to enter India
B. No inherent or legally enforceable right to enter India
C. A right to settle in India
D. A right to work in India

Answer: B

Q5. In which case did the Supreme Court say fundamental rights of foreigners are limited to Article 21?
A. Hans Muller of Nurenburg v. Superintendent, Presidency Jail
B. Louis De Raedt v. Union of India
C. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
D. Bijoe Emmanuel v. State of Kerala

Answer: B

Q6. Which law now governs the legal framework on foreigners in India?
A. Foreigners Act, 1946
B. Passport Act, 1967
C. Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025
D. Citizenship Act, 1955

Answer: C

Q7. Which sea's shipping safety was mentioned among the issues India is discussing with Russia and Ukraine?
A. Red Sea
B. Black Sea
C. Baltic Sea
D. South China Sea

Answer: B

Q8. Roughly what share of India's oil imports comes from Russia, as per the report?
A. Less than 10%
B. About 25%
C. Over 50%
D. 100%

Answer: C

Q9. Where did Jaishankar make these remarks?
A. Munich Leaders Meeting in Delhi
B. UN Security Council in New York
C. G20 Summit in Florida
D. Quad Summit in Tokyo

Answer: A

Q10. What is the tenure of an Agniveer?
A. Two years
B. Four years
C. Seven years
D. Ten years

Answer: B

Q11. What share of each batch can be retained in the regular cadre?
A. Up to 10%
B. Up to 25%
C. Up to 50%
D. Up to 75%

Answer: B

Q12. In which year was the Agnipath scheme introduced?
A. 2020
B. 2021
C. 2022
D. 2023

Answer: C

Q13. By which year does India aim to eliminate dog-mediated human rabies?
A. 2027
B. 2030
C. 2035
D. 2047

Answer: B

Q14. What is the ICMR-NIE study's estimate of yearly rabies deaths in India?
A. 54
B. 271
C. 5,726
D. 59,000

Answer: C

Q15. Roughly what share of global rabies deaths does the WHO attribute to India?
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 35%
D. 60%

Answer: C

CLAT 2027 Daily Question Series for Legal Reasoning

Below are practice questions based on two passages from the legal reasoning section of previous years’ question papers.

Passage 1

Geographical Indications (GIs) are a form of intellectual property that designates a product as originating from a specific geographic location, where a given quality, reputation, or other characteristic is essentially attributable to its geographic origin. GIs protect names that are used to identify products with specific qualities or characteristics due to their geographic origin. For example, ‘Champagne’ refers to sparkling wine produced in the Champagne region of France, and ‘Darjeeling Tea’ refers to tea grown in the Darjeeling region of India. The protection of GIs ensures that only products genuinely originating from a specific region are allowed to use the geographical name. This helps maintain the product’s reputation and quality, prevents misuse or imitation, and supports local economies by promoting regional products. International agreements such as the TRIPS Agreement under the World Trade Organization (WTO) provide a framework for the protection of GIs globally.

Q1. Which of the following statements about Geographical Indications (GIs) is not true?

(A) GIs are protected under international law to ensure that only products from specific regions can use the GI name.

(B) The use of a GI name can be legally challenged if it is used by products not originating from the specified region.

(C) Geographical Indications (GI) can be used for any product that is licensed regardless of its place of origin.

(D) The TRIPS Agreement under the WTO establishes a framework for the protection of GIs on a global scale.

Q2. If a product named “Darjeeling Tea” is produced outside of the Darjeeling region, which of the following legal actions is likely to be taken under GI protection laws?

(A) The product can still be sold but with a disclaimer about its true origin

(B) The use of the GI name “Darjeeling Tea” can be legally contested and potentially prohibited

(C) The product can be sold under a different GI name of “Not Darjeeling Tea”

(D) The product can be marketed as “Darjeeling Tea” and will face no legal consequences

Q3. Which of the following is not a potential consequence of the misuse of a Geographical Indication?

(A) Loss of consumer trust in the authenticity of the product.

(B) Decrease in the market value of the GI-protected product.

(C) Compulsory license on the patents of the misusing entity

(D) Potential Legal action for infringement against the misuse.

Q4. QIn the context of GIs, which of the following scenarios best illustrates the concept of “geographic origin”?

(A) A product’s name is changed to reflect its local ingredients rather than its place of production

(B) A product is marketed with a GI name even though it is produced in a different region and country

(C) A product is identified by a GI name that corresponds to the region where it is traditionally made/cultivated with distinctive qualities due to that location

(D) A product is sold under a generic name with no reference to its production location

Q5. Choose the most appropriate objective of the TRIPS Agreement concerning Geographical Indications:

(A) To harmonize intellectual property laws across member countries

(B) To ensure uniform product labelling standards globally

(C) To provide a framework for the protection and enforcement of Geographical Indications among WTO members

(D) To promote international trade by standardizing product names and prices

Passage 2

The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024 that has provision for up to five years’ imprisonment and a fine of up to ` 1 crore for malpractices and organized cheating in government recruitment exams was notified by the Union government and came into effect from June 21, 2024. The Bill had received assent from the President of India on the 13th February 2024. The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024 mentions punishments for “leakage of question paper or answer key”, “directly or indirectly assisting the candidate in any manner unauthorisedly in the public examination” and “tampering with the computer network or a computer resource or a computer system” as offences done by a person, group of persons or institutions. Besides these, “creation of fake website to cheat or for monetary gain”, “conduct of fake examination, issuance of fake admit cards or offer letters to cheat or for monetary gain” and “manipulation in seating arrangements, allocation of dates and shifts for the candidates to facilitate adopting unfair means in examinations” are also among the offences punishable under the law. “Any person or persons resorting to unfair means and offences under this Act shall be punished with imprisonment for a term not less than three years but which may extend to five years and with fine up to `10 lakh,” said the Act. A service provider, engaged by the public examination authority for conduct of examinations, shall also be liable to be punished with imposition of a fine up to `1 crore “and proportionate cost of examination shall also be recovered” from it, according to the Act. Such service providers shall also be barred from being assigned with any responsibility for the conduct of any public examination for a period of four years. [Extracted, with edits and revisions from “Act that Punishes Organized Cheating in Government Exams Comes into Effect” published in The Hindu dated 22-06-2024]

Q1. A Bill becomes an Act only when………………………………

(A) Both the houses of the Parliament pass with simple majority

(B) Both the houses of the Parliament pass with absolute majority

(C) When the Prime Minister of India gives his approval

(D) When the President of India gives the Assent

Q2. A service provider, engaged by the public examination authority for conduct of examinations, indirectly helped his family member by giving hint on questions that were supposed to be asked in the examination shall

(A) be liable to be punished with imposition of a fine of `1 crore

(B) be liable to be punished with imposition of a fine up to `1 crore

(C) be liable to be punished with imposition of a fine upto `1 crore and the entire cost of conduct of the examination

(D) None of the above

Q3. An invigilator of a public examination found guilty of manipulating the seating arrangement to favour his relative writing the public examination is punished by the Court. Which among the following is the appropriate punishment as per the punishment mentioned in the above passage?

(A) Imprisonment for 1 year and a fine of 1 lakh

(B) Imprisonment for 2 years and a fine of 10 lakhs

(C) Imprisonment for 3 years and a fine of 15 lakhs

(D) Imprisonment for 4 years and a fine of 5 lakhs

Q4. Identify which of the following is not an unfair means relating to the conduct of a public examination?

(A) Coaching Centre conducting mock tests for students

(B) The Coaching Centre offering help to its students during the examination

(C) The Centre Superintendent of the public examination, on the request of the Coaching Centre, provides seating arrangements for all its students in one hall

(D) The Centre Superintendent of the public examination indirectly assisting the candidate

Q5. Who among the following is not a service provider in the context of a public examination?

(A) Coaching Centre which prepares students for passing in the public examination

(B) Printing Press where the question paper of the public examination is printed

(C) The Software Company that manages the website of the public examination

(D) The Company that scans the OMR sheets of the public examination