CLAT 2027 Daily Questions Series: 7th October Current Affairs and Legal Reasoning Answers

CLAT 2027 Daily Questions: LR and CA

CLAT 2027 Current Affairs from Daily News: October 7, 2026

Q1. Which Article deals with the privileges of State Legislatures?
A. Article 105
B. Article 143
C. Article 194
D. Article 226

Answer: C

Q2. Why did the Supreme Court dispose of the reference?
A. The petitioner withdrew it
B. The Assembly had withdrawn its resolution in 2004
C. The Court lacked jurisdiction
D. The law was repealed

Answer: B

Q3. How many judges were on the Bench?
A. Three
B. Five
C. Seven
D. Nine

Answer: C

Q4. What is the Supreme Court's working strength after the new oaths?
A. 34
B. 35
C. 37
D. 38

Answer: C

Q5. Who recommended the three judges?
A. Law Commission
B. Supreme Court Collegium
C. Parliament
D. Bar Council of India

Answer: B

Q6. Justice Sunita Agarwal was earlier Chief Justice of which High Court?
A. Delhi
B. Telangana
C. Allahabad
D. Gujarat

Answer: D

Q7. Which court ordered the CBI probe?
A. Delhi High Court
B. Supreme Court
C. Punjab and Haryana High Court
D. Allahabad High Court

Answer: C

Q8. What is Punjab's main argument in the Supreme Court?
A. The order violates federalism
B. The CBI lacks officers
C. The case is too old
D. The court lacks a Bench

Answer: A

Q9. What post does Rajbir Ghuman hold?
A. Chief Secretary of Punjab
B. DGP of Punjab
C. OSD to the Punjab CM
D. CBI Director

Answer: C

Q10. What does ITLA stand for?
A. Integrated Transport and Logistics Authority
B. Indian Transport Law Authority
C. Inter-State Trade and Logistics Agency
D. Integrated Trade and Labour Authority

Answer: A

Q11. ITLA will appraise projects costing at least how much?
A. Rs 100 crore
B. Rs 500 crore
C. Rs 1,000 crore
D. Rs 5,000 crore

Answer: B

Q12. What is the size of the SME Growth Fund?
A. Rs 1,000 crore
B. Rs 5,000 crore
C. Rs 10,000 crore
D. Rs 50,000 crore

Answer: C

Q13. Which Article gives the Election Commission control over elections?
A. Article 280
B. Article 324
C. Article 326
D. Article 329

Answer: B

Q14. The CEC can be removed in the same manner as whom?
A. President
B. Prime Minister
C. Supreme Court judge
D. Governor

Answer: C

Q15. Why did the ECI reject the meeting request?
A. It was against the law
B. The venue was outside its premises
C. The MPs were not elected
D. The Commission was on leave

Answer: B

Daily Practice Questions for CLAT 2027 Legal Reasoning

Below are two passages from CLAT previous years’ question papers followed by MCQ questions.

Passage 1

The Supreme Court of India declared that the right to privacy is a fundamental right and that the right to informational privacy is part of this right. Subsequently, the Parliament of India enacted a new law relating to digital personal data protection. The law applies to Indian residents and businesses collecting the data of Indian residents. It also applies to non-citizens living in India whose data processing is “in connection with any activity related to the offering of goods or services” that happens outside India. The law allows personal data to be processed for any lawful purpose. If the personal data is sensitive, then additional safeguards are to be observed. The entity processing data can do so either by taking the concerned individual’s consent or for “legitimate uses”, which include situations where an individual has voluntarily provided personal data for a specified purpose. The law requires that an individual’s consent must be “free, specific, informed, unconditional and unambiguous with a clear affirmative action” and for a specific purpose. The data collected has to be limited to that necessary for the specified purpose. A clear notice containing these details has to be provided to consumers, including the rights of the concerned individual and the grievance redressal mechanism. Individuals have the right to withdraw consent if consent is the ground on which data is being processed. The law also creates rights and obligations for individuals. These include the right to get a summary of all the collected data and to know the identities of all other entities/organisations with whom the personal data has been shared, along with a description of the data shared. Individuals also have the right to correction, completion, updating, and erasure of their data. Besides, they have a right to obtain redressal for their grievances and a right to nominate persons who will receive their data. [Excerpts from Anirudh Burman, “Understanding India’s New Data Protection Law”, CARNEGIE INDIA, October 03, 2023]

Q1. An Indian company collects personal data from its users to provide personalized services. The company intends to share this data with a third-party vendor for targeted advertisements. Under the digital personal data protection law in India, what must the company do before sharing the data?

(A) Obtain explicit consent from the users

(B) Share the data by informing the users, as it is for business purposes

(C) Encrypt the data and share it with the third-party vendor

(D) Inform the third-party vendor that the data is sensitive

Q2. A social media platform processes user data based on the consent given during account creation. A user now wishes to withdraw consent to process their data. Under the digital personal data protection law in India, what must the platform do?

(A) Refuse to accept the withdrawal request since consent was already given

(B) Comply with the legal requirements and stop processing the data

(C) Continue processing the data but notify the user

(D) Allow withdrawal only after 30 days

Q3. A financial institution collects biometric data from its clients for verification purposes. If the clients wish to know what data has been collected, under the digital personal data protection law in India, what right allows them to request this information?

(A) Right to Data Portability

(B) Right to Correction

(C) Right to Access

(D) Right to Be Forgotten

Q4. A startup provides a health-tracking app that collects sensitive health data from users. Under the digital personal data protection law in India, what additional precautions must the startup take compared to regular personal data?

(A) No additional measures are needed

(B) Ensure explicit consent and adopt higher security standards

(C) Store the data only with the government agencies

(D) Store the data only with the hospitals and other health care institutions

Q5. As per the passage, what are the rights included under the digital data protection law of India?

1. Right to get the summary of collected data

2. Right to know to whom the data has been shared

3. Right to correct and update the data

4. Right to get the data removed from the database

5. Right to decide who can receive their data

6. Right to get redressal of grievances

(A) 1, 2, 5 and 6

(B) 1, 3, 4 and 6

(C) 1, 3, 5 and 6

(D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

Passage 2

The Indian legal system places a significant emphasis on protecting the rights and welfare of children. The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, is a vital piece of legislation in this regard. It is designed to ensure that children in conflict with the law receive special care, protection, and treatment, with the ultimate goal of their rehabilitation and reintegration into society. One of the key provisions of the Act is the establishment of Juvenile Justice Boards (JJBs) at the district level. These boards consist of a Metropolitan Magistrate or Judicial Magistrate of the first class and two social workers, at least one of whom should be a woman. The primary function of the JJB is to determine the age of the juvenile, the circumstances in which the offense was committed, and whether the juvenile should be sent to a special home or released on probation. The Act makes a clear distinction between a “child in conflict with the law” and a “child in need of care and protection.” A child in conflict with the law is one who has committed an offense, while a child in need of care and protection is a child who is vulnerable or at risk and requires special care and support. The Act introduces a unique approach to dealing with children who are in conflict with the law. For children between the ages of 16 and 18 who have committed heinous offenses, they can be tried as adults, subject to a preliminary assessment by the Juvenile Justice Board. This assessment considers the child’s mental and physical capacity to commit such an offense. If the board determines that the child should be tried as an adult, the case is transferred to the regular criminal courts. The Act also places restrictions on the publication of information that could lead to the identification of a juvenile offender. This is done to protect the privacy and prospects of the child.

Q1. What is the primary objective of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015?

(A) To punish child offenders.

(B) To rehabilitate and reintegrate children in conflict with the law.

(C) To remove all forms of violence against children.

(D) To increase the age of criminal responsibility.

Q2. Who makes up the Juvenile Justice Board (JJB)?

(A) Two Judges.

(B) A Metropolitan Magistrate and two Lawyers.

(C) A Metropolitan Magistrate or Judicial Magistrate of the First Class and two Social Workers.

(D) Three Police Officers.

Q3. What is the role of the Juvenile Justice Board (JJB)?

(A) To determine the punishment for juvenile offenders.

(B) To decide whether a child should be sent to a regular prison.

(C) To assess the age and circumstances of the juvenile, and make decisions on rehabilitation.

(D) To prosecute child offenders.

Q4. What is the distinction between a ‘‘child in conflict with the law’’ and a ‘‘child in need of care and protection’’?

(A) There is no distinction; both terms mean the same thing.

(B) A ‘‘child in conflict with the law’’ has committed a crime, while a ‘‘child in need of care and protection’’ is vulnerable or at risk.

(C) A ‘‘child in need of care and protection’’ is more likely to commit crimes.

(D) A ‘‘child in conflict with the law’’ is an adolescent offender.

Q5. Under what circumstances can children between the ages of 16 and 18 be tried as adults?

(A) They can always be tried as adults.

(B) After a preliminary assessment by the Juvenile Justice Board.

(C) When they have committed any offense, regardless of the severity.

(D) When they reach the age of 18.

Q6. What is the purpose of placing restrictions on the publication of information related to juvenile offenders?

(A) To increase the age of criminal responsibility.

(B) To protect the privacy and prospects of the child.

(C) To encourage public shaming of juvenile offenders.

(D) To help law enforcement track juvenile offenders.