Preparing for CLAT 2027? Here’s Your Complete Set of Sample Papers, Mock Tests and PYQs

CLAT 2027 Sample Papers

The Consortium of NLUs publishes the official CLAT sample papers on its website a few weeks before the entrance exam is conducted. However, given the limitations of time, candidates must also refer to other CLAT sample papers. Careers360 has also prepared the CLAT 2027 sample papers based on the exact format and pattern to help students prepare for the exam. The CLAT 2027 sample paper as well as subject-wise sample papers have been given in the tables below:

CLAT 2027 Sample Paper

CLAT 2027 Subject-wise Sample Papers - By Careers360

How to download CLAT 2027 Sample Papers?

Candidates can download the CLAT 2027 sample papers by Careers360 by following the steps given below:

• Click on the direct CLAT 2027 sample papers PDF link given in the table above.

• Candidates will be directed to the sample paper download page.

• Existing users who are already logged in can click on the “Free Download” button to directly access the PDF.

• New users will be required to complete a short sign-up process where they need to provide basic details like name, phone number, email ID, etc.

• Upon successful sign-up, candidates can click on the “Free Download” button and the CLAT 2027 sample paper PDF will download on their device.

• Additionally, the CLAT sample paper PDF 2027 will also be sent to the registered email address of candidates.

CLAT 2027 Mock Tests

Apart from the sample papers, CLAT 2027 mock tests are a very good preparation tool for students. Using the CLAT mock test 2027, candidates can regularly track their preparation. Careers360 has also designed an interactive CLAT2027 mock test series for candidates preparing for the law entrance exam. Careers360’s CLAT mock test series 2027 comprises of passages and questions similar to the exam. Also, with a time limit and familiarity with the exam, candidates get a good exam-like feel through the CLAT 2027 mock tests. The direct links to practice the CLAT 2027 mock test series by Careers360 have been given below:

CLAT 2027 Mock Test Series

Free Mock Test For CLAT 2027 PDF - Section-wise

CLAT Previous Year Question Papers

When it comes to CLAT preparation, previous year question papers are the go-to resource for every candidate. Practising CLAT previous year question papers will give candidates a detailed understanding of the difficulty level over the years, the exam format, type of questions. Most importantly, solving CLAT PYQs also gives candidates a good sense of time management, which is very beneficial on the day of the exam. Candidates can download the CLAT previous years’ question papers in the table below:

CLAT Previous Year Question Papers PDF Download

CLAT 2027 Sample Passages and Questions

The CLAT 2027 exam will be conducted in a passage-based format. There are generally 20-24 passages in the CLAT 2027 exam, and each passage is followed by 5-6 questions from it. Candidates preparing for CLAT 2027 must be well-versed in the passage-based format of the exam. Candidates can find the CLAT 2027 sample passages and type of questions asked from the passages below:

1. English Language

I. The adoption of the Non-Cooperation Movement by the Congress gave it a new energy and from January 1921 it began to register considerable success all over the country. Gandhiji undertook a nation-wide tour during which he addressed hundreds of meetings and met a large number of political workers. In the first month, thousands of students left their educational institutions and joined more than 800 national schools and colleges that had sprung up all over the country. Gandhiji had promised Swaraj within a year, if his programme was adopted.

The Non-Cooperation Movement demonstrated that it commanded the support and sympathy of vast sections of the Indian people. Its reach among many sections of Indian peasants, workers, artisans etc, had been demonstrated. The spatial spread of the movement was also nation-wide. Some areas were more active than others, but there were few that showed no signs of activity at all.

The capacity of the ‘poor dumb millions’ of India to take part in modern nationalist politics was also demonstrated. This was the first time that nationalists from the towns, students from schools and colleges or even the educated and politically aware in the villages had made a serious attempt to bring the ideology and the movement into their midst.

The tremendous participation of different communities in the movement, and the maintenance of communal unity, despite the Malabar developments, was in itself no mean achievement. There is hardly any doubt that it was minority participation that gave the movement its truly mass character in many areas. And it was, indeed, unfortunate that this most positive feature of the movement was not to be repeated in later years once communalism began to take its toll.

[324 words]
[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from India’s Struggle for Independence 1857-1947, by Bipin Chandra and Others, Penguin Books, 1989.]

1. From the passage it is evident that:
(A) The idea of Swaraj seemed futile
(B) The non-cooperation movement was a complete success
(C) The non-cooperation movement gained the sympathy of majority of the Indians
(D) The Indian National Congress represented microscopic minority

2. The term “poor dumb millions” refer to-
(A) The vast number of common people who are impoverished
(B) Large number of common people who are hearing impaired
(C) Large number of people who are vulnerable
(D) The vast number of people who are impoverished and uneducated

3. Which of the statements is true?
(A) The Swaraj movement happened before the non co-operation movement
(B) The non co-operation movement failed due to sudden withdrawal
(C) There was a fine show of communal unity in the movement
(D) The rich and the educated kept themselves away from the non co-operation movement

4. The main idea of the passage is-
(A) The Non co-operation movement did not give impetus to the future movements
(B) The movement made the Indians realize their potential to fight against the mighty British
(C) The British became fearful and worried of Gandhiji’s leadership and co-operation of Indians
(D) That the most positive feature of the movement was that it was repeated in later years

5. The word “Communalism” in the above passage refers to-
(A) Religious identity
(B) Caste identity
(C) Regional identity
(D) Secularism

2. Current Affairs & General Knowledge

US President Donald Trump has landed a triple whammy on India by torpedoing the H-1B visa programme, days after revoking sanctions waiver on Chabahar port in Iran and weeks after imposing a 50% tariff on Indian exports to the US. The White House also maintained a conspicuous silence on the Pakistan-Saudi Arabia mutual defence treaty amid reports that neither country informed Washington of the pact, suggesting a growing US indifference to India’s concerns. The triple blow has shaken US-India ties to the foundation, mystifying experts who expected a reset after an exchange of friendly messages between Modi and Trump. While some observers see in the crackdown on H-1B a pressure tactic to make India bend on the trade deal, sources familiar with the dynamics of the current White House say the two issues are unrelated and Trump was convinced of the need to “reform” the guest worker visa programme ever since MAGA hardliners persuaded him that American workers were being gamed out of jobs by foreign companies and US big tech acting in tandem.

[174 words]
[Extracted from the newspaper, The Times of India, September 21, 2025]

1. What percentage tariff did President Trump initially impose on Indian imports in 2025?
(A) 15%
(B) 25%
(C) 40%
(D) 50%

2. What strategic reason did Donald Trump cite for penalizing India with additional tariffs apart from trade imbalances?
(A) India’s IT service exports
(B) Indian Banknote Demonetization
(C) India’s immigration policies
(D) India’s defense and energy ties with Russia

3. What is the strategic significance of Chabahar Port for India?
(A) Provides trade access to China through Pakistan
(B) Acts as counterbalance to China’s presence in nearby Gwadar Port, Pakistan
(C) Serves as the primary naval base for India
(D) Connects India directly to the Mediterranean Sea

4. What is the primary purpose of the H-1B Visa?
(A) Exchange Visitor Visa
(B) Employment Visa
(C) Immigrant visa for permanent residence in the U.S.
(D) Non-immigrant visa that allows US companies to hire foreign professionals in specialized field

5. The acronym ‘MAGA’ mentioned in the above passage refers to:
(A) Multilateral Agencies Global Association
(B) Make America Great Again
(C) Mutual Agreements for Global Advantage
(D) Monetary Advantage For Great America

3. Legal Reasoning

The recent Supreme Court judgment in State of Tamil Nadu v. Governor of Tamil Nadu (2025) affirmed that a Governor cannot exercise an absolute or "pocket" veto on bills, holding that if assent is withheld, the bill must be returned to the legislature “as soon as possible” for reconsideration, with the Governor having no discretion to withhold assent again. The court established that inaction or indefinite delay is illegal and unconstitutional, prescribing timelines for the Governor's decision and even “deeming assent” on pending bills in the Tamil Nadu case, establishing a critical precedent for judicial review of gubernatorial powers. The Supreme Court explicitly rejected the Governor’s power to an absolute or “pocket” veto, which allows for bills to be indefinitely delayed. If a Governor withholds assent to a bill, they are constitutionally obligated to return it to the State Assembly for reconsideration, according to the proviso in Article 200 of the Constitution. If the State Assembly re-enacts a bill after it has been returned by the Governor, the Governor has no choice but to give assent to it and cannot withhold it for a second time. The Court held that indefinitely delaying or remaining silent on bills is unconstitutional and that Governors must act “as soon as possible” on bills. The judgment expanded the scope of judicial review by setting timelines for the Governor’s actions on bills, allowing state governments to approach courts if these timelines are breached. In the case of the Tamil Nadu, the Court used its powers under Article 142 to “deem assent” on the long-pending bills, which had the effect of making any subsequent decision by the President on those bills void.

[276 words]
[Extracted with edits & revisions from ‘‘The Hindu’’, dated 8th April 2025]

1. The Legislative Assembly of State X passes a controversial bill and sends it to the Governor for assent. The Governor, strongly disagreeing with the bill's provisions, decides to neither give assent nor return the bill, hoping it will be forgotten over the time. Which of the following statements accurately describes the legal position of the Governor's action?
(A) The Governor’s action is a legitimate exercise of a “pocket veto”, allowing for indefinite delay of bills
(B) The Governor’s inaction is unconstitutional, as the Supreme Court has explicitly rejected the power to an absolute or “pocket” veto, and they are obligated to return the bill “as soon as possible” if assent is withheld
(C) The Governor is within their rights to delay the bill indefinitely as long as they do not explicitly reject it, reflecting the true spirit of gubernatorial discretion
(D) The bill will automatically lapse after six months of gubernatorial inaction, making the delay a de facto rejection

2. Governor Y receives a bill from the State Assembly and, after careful consideration, decides to withhold assent, promptly returning it with a message for reconsideration. The State Assembly then re-enacts the bill without any change and sends it back to Governor Y. What is the constitutional obligation of Governor Y at this point?
(A) Governor Y has no choice but to give assent to the re-enacted bill, as the Supreme Court has ruled that the Governor cannot withhold assent for a second time
(B) Governor Y can again withhold assent if they continue to disagree with the bill’s content, sending it back for further reconsideration
(C) Governor Y can refer the bill to the President of India for a final decision, exercising a higher discretionary power
(D) Governor Y can dissolve the State Assembly for consistently passing erroneous bills

3. After the Supreme Court's judgment in State of Tamil Nadu v. Governor of Tamil Nadu (2025), a State Governor holds a bill for eight months without taking any action—neither assenting nor returning it. The State Government believes that this delay is unconstitutional. Based on the precedent set by the judgment, what recourse is available to the State Government?
(A) The State Government must wait for a full year before any action can be taken, as gubernatorial delays are typically permitted for this duration
(B) The bill automatically lapses after six months of inaction, making any further action by the State Government unnecessary
(C) The State Government's only recourse is to re-enact the bill, which would then compel the Governor to act
(D) The State Government can approach the courts, as the judgment had prescribed timelines for the Governor’s actions on bills since indefinite delay was construed unconstitutional

4. In a situation mirroring the Tamil Nadu case, a Supreme Court bench is reviewing several instances where a particular Governor has indefinitely delayed assent on multiple bills passed by the State Assembly, despite Constitutional obligations. If the Supreme Court decides to follow the precedent established in State of Tamil Nadu v. Governor of Tamil Nadu (2025) regarding pending bills, what would be a likely outcome for these delayed bills?
(A) The Supreme Court would order the Governor to explicitly reject all the delayed bills
(B) The Supreme Court would direct the State Assembly to conduct a public referendum on each delayed bill
(C) The Supreme Court could deem assent on the pending bills, establishing a critical precedent for judicial review of gubernatorial powers in such cases, as it did in the Tamil Nadu case
(D) The Supreme Court would advise the Governor to seek legal counsel and then re-evaluate each bill individually without a set timeline

5. A newly appointed Governor publicly declares that he intend to use his discretion to permanently halt any legislation he deems inappropriate, by simply not acting on the bills, citing an inherent gubernatorial power. How does this declaration align with the constitutional interpretation provided by the Supreme Court of India?
(A) The Governor's declaration is consistent with the broad discretionary powers traditionally afforded to Governors, allowing them significant influence over state legislation
(B) The Governor’s declaration is valid only for non-money bills, as money bills have different Constitutional protocols
(C) The Governor’s declaration is partially valid, as indefinite delay is permissible only if the State Assembly is not in session
(D) The Governor’s declaration is unconstitutional; the Supreme Court explicitly rejected the Governor’s power to an absolute or “pocket” veto

6. What are the three primary courses of action for a Governor when a Bill is enacted by the State Assembly and sent to him/her for his/her assent. Which option correctly lists these three courses?
(A) (i) Give assent, (ii) Veto absolutely, or (iii) Refer to the Supreme Court
(B) (i) Give assent, (ii) Withhold assent (allowing the Bill to fail, unless the proviso is followed), or (iii) Recommend amendments
(C) (i) Give assent, (ii) Withhold assent (with the option to return for reconsideration), or (iii) Reserve for the consideration of the President
(D) (i) Give assent, (ii) Return for reconsideration, or (iii) Refer to the Union Government

4. Logical Reasoning

On the night of October 12th, the "Sunburst Medallion" was stolen from the highly secured display case in the city museum. The theft occurred sometime between the museum closing at 10:00 PM and the night guard, Mr. Hemant, completing his final round at 1:00 AM.Three primary suspects were identified, all of whom had recently been dismissed from their museum positions: Anjali, the former curator; Bharat, the former security expert; and Chitra, the former exhibits designer.

Here are the established facts and their alibis:

• The security system logs show that the display case was opened using a specific five-digit code, which only Anjali and the museum director (who was out of the country) knew.

• Bharat's alibi is that he was at a distant relative's birthday party from 8:00 PM to 1:30 AM. Multiple independent witnesses confirmed his presence throughout the entire period.

• Chitra's alibi is that she was working late at a downtown graphic design studio. A time-stamped security camera from the studio's entrance shows her entering at 7:00 PM and exiting at 11:45 PM. The studio is a 20-minute drive from the museum.

• Mr. Hemant, the night guard, stated he checked the medallion at 10:30 PM, and it was still there.

Further investigation revealed that a small, distinctive silver button was found near the display case. Anjali is known to frequently wear a coat with similar unique silver buttons. The security expert, Bharat, had previously boasted that he could remotely disable a certain type of magnetic lock-the same type used on the medallion's case-without needing the code, though the log suggests the code was used.

[269 words]

1. Identifying the Most Likely Suspect
Based only on the fact that the five-digit code was used to open the display case, who is the only plausible suspect among the three?
(A) Anjali (B) Bharat
(C) Chitra (D) Both Anjali and Chitra

2. Evaluating Alibis and Time Constraints
The theft occurred between 10:00 PM and 1:00 AM, but the night guard saw the medallion at 10:30 PM. Given Chitra's alibi, what is the earliest time she could have reached the museum?
(A) 11:45 PM
(B) 12:05 AM
(C) 12:45 AM
(D) 10:50 PM

3. Deduction and Contradictory Evidence
If the theft was committed by Bharat, which established fact must be incorrect, based on the provided information?
(A) The medallion was present at 10:30 PM
(B) The security logs indicating the code was used
(C) The museum closing time of 10:00 PM
(D) The time frame of his alibi (8:00 PM to 1:30 AM)

4. Analyzing Accessory Evidence
The discovery of the silver button near the display case is the most incriminating evidence against which suspect, and why?
(A) Bharat, because he had the technical expertise to get close to the case
(B) Chitra, because she was near the museum late that night
(C) Anjali, because she is known to wear a coat with similar buttons
(D) Mr. Hemant, as he was the last person to check the area

5. Identifying the Logical Flaw in the Argument:
A detective argues: "Since Bharat has a confirmed, continuous alibi covering the entire time window of the theft (10:30 PM to 1:00 AM), he cannot be the thief." What principle of logic supports this detective's conclusion?
(A) Correlation does not imply causation
(B) If an event requires presence, confirmed absence proves innocence
(C) The rule of double jeopardy
(D) The burden of proof lies with the accuser

6. Drawing a Strongest Conclusion
Considering all the facts (the code being used, the silver button, and the confirmed alibis), which is the most reasonable inference?
(A) Bharat must have had an accomplice who knew the code
(B) Chitra's alibi is false because she had enough time to commit the crime after leaving the studio
(C) Anjali is the most likely suspect because the code was used and she has a direct link to the physical evidence (the button)
(D) Mr. Hemant is secretly the thief and is trying to frame the former employees

7. Assessing Necessary Conditions
What condition is necessary for Chitra to have stolen the medallion?
(A) She must know the five digit code
(B) She must have left the graphic design studio before 11.45 pm
(C) The theft must have occurred after she left the studio and before 1 am
(D) She must have worked with Anjali to disable the locks

5. Quantitative Aptitude

Health insurance plays a vital role in ensuring financial protection and access to quality healthcare. In India, however, the extent and nature of health insurance coverage vary significantly between urban and rural areas. While urban populations often have better access to organized insurance schemes, employer-provided coverage, and awareness about health policies, rural populations face challenges such as limited outreach of insurance schemes, inadequate infrastructure, and lower awareness levels. This urban–rural divide in health insurance coverage highlights the broader issue of healthcare inequality, making it essential to analyze the factors contributing to this gap and explore strategies for more inclusive health protection. A state-level health survey was conducted.

The survey covered 1,80,000 adults across urban and rural areas. Urban residents formed 55% of the sample (that is, 99,000 people) while rural residents made up 45% (that is, 81,000 people). In each area, coverage was classified under four heads – Public schemes, Private insurance, Employer-provided coverage, and Uninsured. In urban areas, Public coverage accounted for 28% of the urban population, Private for 22%, Employer for 18%, and the remaining 32% were Uninsured. In rural areas, where formal coverage is generally lower, Public coverage stood at 35%, Private at 10%, Employer at 8%, while 47% were Uninsured. For this survey, “Insured” includes everyone covered by Public + Private + Employer schemes, and “Uninsured” indicates those with no coverage at all. Officials noted that public schemes remain the backbone of rural coverage, while employer and private plans are relatively more prevalent in urban centres.

[250 words]

1. The ratio of insured adults in Urban: Rural is:
(A) 82:65
(B) 748:477
(C) 65:82
(D) 477:748

2. By what percentage is the number of Uninsured in Rural higher than Uninsured in Urban?
(A) 18.75%
(B) 20.17%
(C) 22.50%
(D) 25.00%

3. If the total population grows by 5% next year and all percentage shares remain the same (including the Urban-Rural split), how many additional privately insured people will there be (vs. this year)?
(A) 1,494
(B) 1,560
(C) 1,620
(D) 1,650

4. The total number of Employer-covered adults is:
(A) 22,800
(B) 23,100
(C) 24,300
(D) 25,200

5. What percentage of all insured adults are Publicly insured?
(A) 48.50%
(B) 49.75%
(C) 50.86%
(D) 52.00%

6. What percentage of the total surveyed population was insured?
(A) 52.15%
(B) 56.25%
(C) 61.25%
(D) 64%

CLAT 2027 Preparation Tips

Here are some basic tips to ace the CLAT 2027 exam:

• Candidates are advised to practice as many CLAT sample papers as they can to get a good understanding of the syllabus, format, question types, etc.

• Time management is the key to ace the CLAT exam. Candidates must ensure they complete all mock tests and sample papers within the given time of 2 hours to ensure no mishap on the day of the actual exam.

• Refer to recommended books for preparation for better clarity on complex topics. Candidates must make sure they have good reference books and notes for each subject.

• Candidates must pay special focus on revision of the topics they have learnt over the course of their preparation. In the last month of preparation, candidates must avoid learning new topics and only focus on revising what they have learnt.