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    CLAT 2027 Daily Questions Series (18th September): Legal Reasoning and Current Affairs Questions and Answers
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    • CLAT 2027 Daily Questions Series (18th September): Legal Reasoning and Current Affairs Questions and Answers

    CLAT 2027 Daily Questions Series (18th September): Legal Reasoning and Current Affairs Questions and Answers

    JasmineUpdated on 18 Sep 2026, 04:11 PM IST

    CLAT 2027 daily questions series includes topic-wise multiple-choice questions from different sections of the exam. CLAT 2027 syllabus consists of five sections: legal reasoning, logical reasoning, English, maths, and current affairs & GK. The legal reasoning and current affairs sections hold the highest weightage of 25% in the CLAT exam. A total of 28-32 questions will be from the legal reasoning and current affairs sections, respectively. Candidates preparing for CLAT 2027 must solve the daily questions from previous years’ question papers and daily news.

    CLAT 2027 Daily Questions Series (18th September): Legal Reasoning and Current Affairs Questions and Answers
    CLAT 2027 Daily Questions Series: 18th September Legal Reasoning and Current Affairs Questions and Answers

    CLAT 2027 Daily Questions: LR and CA

    Section

    Topic

    Number of Questions

    CLAT Legal Reasoning

    • Indian Polity

    • Constitutional Law

    2 passages with 6 questions each

    Current Affairs

    • International Relations

    • Indian Polity

    • Finance

    14 (3 from each topic)

    CLAT 2027 Current Affairs from Daily News: September 18, 2026

    Below are some practice questions curated from September 18, 2026 news for the current affairs section.

    Q1. What do secondary sanctions refer to in the context of the Russia sanctions Bill?

    A) Sanctions imposed only on domestic companies

    B) Penalties imposed on third countries dealing with a sanctioned country

    C) Tariffs imposed on domestic imports

    D) Restrictions imposed by international courts

    Answer: B

    Q2. What is the maximum tariff that the Bill allows the U.S. President to impose on target countries?

    A) 25%

    B) 50%

    C) 75%

    D) 100%

    Answer: D

    Q3. Which term best describes India's approach of taking independent foreign policy decisions without fully aligning with a major power bloc?

    A) Collective security

    B) Strategic autonomy

    C) Economic protectionism

    D) Bilateralism

    Answer: B

    Q4. Which List of the Seventh Schedule includes "education," as cited by the State's counsel in this case?

    A) Union List

    B) State List

    C) Concurrent List

    D) Residuary List

    Answer: C

    Q5. Which judge of the Supreme Court made the oral observation that "individual States cannot act like individual countries"?

    A) Justice Surya Kant

    B) Justice B.V. Nagarathna

    C) Justice A.G. Masih

    D) Justice D.Y. Chandrachud

    Answer: B

    Q6. What is a writ of "mandamus," as referenced in the case?

    A) A writ ordering release of a detained person
    B) A writ directing a public authority to perform its legal duty

    C) A writ quashing an unconstitutional law

    D) A writ restraining a lower court from exceeding jurisdiction

    Answer: B

    Q7. Which Article empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs for enforcement of fundamental rights?

    A) Article 21

    B) Article 32

    C) Article 226

    D) Article 300

    Answer: B

    Q8. Approximately what percentage of electors on the draft Delhi SIR roll were issued notices?

    A) 13.96%

    B) 23.96%

    C) 33.96%

    D) 43.96%

    Answer: C

    Q9. The Election Commission of India derives its powers of superintendence over elections from which Article?

    A) Article 244

    B) Article 280

    C) Article 324

    D) Article 356

    Answer: C

    Q10. From which date will the new MDR structure apply to UPI transactions?

    A) September 15, 2026

    B) October 1, 2026

    C) October 15, 2026

    D) November 1, 2026

    Answer: C

    Q11. What is the standard MDR rate for merchant UPI transactions above ₹2,000 (outside essential/capital market sectors)?

    A) 0.02%

    B) 0.4%

    C) 1%

    D) 2%

    Answer: B

    Q12. What is the flat MDR charged on essential-sector transactions of ₹2,000 or more?

    A) ₹2 per transaction

    B) ₹5 per transaction

    C) ₹10 per transaction

    D) ₹50 per transaction

    Answer: B

    Q13. Which organisation backs the Kosovo Specialist Chambers that convicted Hashim Thaci?

    A) United Nations

    B) European Union

    C) NATO

    D) Council of Europe

    Answer: B

    Q14. Hashim Thaci was a senior commandant of which militant force?

    A) Kosovo Liberation Army (KLA)

    B) Yugoslav National Army

    C) Serbian Liberation Front

    D) Balkan Freedom Army

    Answer: A

    Q15. Does India recognise Kosovo as an independent nation?

    A) Yes, since 2008

    B) Yes, since 2020

    C) No

    D) Only partially

    Answer: C

    Daily Practice Questions for CLAT 2027 Legal Reasoning

    Below are two passages from CLAT previous years’ question papers. Each passage is followed by its respective MCQ.

    Passage 1

    One of the central motifs of the past decade of governance under the Indian Prime Minister has been the embrace of policy measures that seek to apply uniform solutions to disparate policy dilemmas facing the country. These measures, often termed One Nation policies, are motivated by a desire to replace the existing patchwork of state-specific policies, regulations, and regimes with measures that are identical across the length and breadth of India. There are numerous examples of such One Nation policies being propagated and, in several cases, implemented in the eleven years since this Government came to power. For instance, in 2016, Parliament passed a series of constitutional amendments to introduce a new Goods and Services Tax (GST), which introduced a unified value-added tax in place of state-specific levies. This reform, known informally as One Nation, One Tax, had been debated and discussed for nearly two decades and was widely touted as an important precursor to forging a common market across India's twenty-eight states. In a similar vein, the government rolled out a new initiative to allow Indian citizens to take advantage of subsidised food rations irrespective of their state of residence. This scheme, commonly termed One Nation, One Ration Card, was intended to increase access to welfare benefits, especially for the millions of internal migrants in India without a fixed place of residence. Earlier this year, the government announced the launch of a new online portal that will provide students, faculty, and researchers across the country's public higher education institutions with open access to international scholarly journals and articles under a scheme it has dubbed One Nation, One Subscription. Most notably, the government recently signalled its intention to pursue a monumental One Nation policy that has been long discussed but only recently outlined in detail. This measure, known as One Nation, One Election, would do away with India's current system of staggered elections for state and national assemblies, replacing it with a framework of simultaneous elections. The proposal, which has featured in many of PM's speeches in the past, was advanced by a high-level committee (HLC) established by the government in 2023. (351 words) [Excerpts from Does "One Nation, One Election" Make Sense for India? by Milan Vaishnav, Caroline Mallory, and Annabel Richter Published on July 28, 2025]

    Q1. What is the underlying idea behind the "One Nation" policies of the government? (A) To strengthen federalism by empowering states with greater autonomy

    (B) To apply uniform solutions across India, replacing state-specific variations

    (C) To decentralise governance to local self-government institutions

    (D) To promote diversity by encouraging state-specific policies

    Q2. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Bills deals with empowerment of the Election Commission of India (ECI) to implement simultaneous state and national elections?

    (A) One Hundred and Twenty-Ninth Amendment

    (B) One Hundred and Twenty-Eighth Amendment

    (C) One Hundred and Twenty-Seventh Amendment

    (D) One Hundred and Twenty-Sixth Amendment

    Q3. Which committee or report has discussed the feasibility of simultaneous elections in India?

    (A) Justice Verma Committee 2013

    (B) Law Commission of India Report 2018

    (C) Sarkaria Commission Report 1988

    (D) Punchhi Commission Report 2010

    Q4. A High-Level Committee was constituted by the government to examine the policy of One Nation, One Election. The Committee was led by:

    (A) Shri Ram Nath Kovind

    (B) Shri Jagdeep Dhankhar

    (C) Shri Pranab Mukherjee

    (D) Smt. Draupadi Murmu

    Q5. As per the new GST reforms introduced in September 2025, the structure of new GST

    (A) 5%, 12%, 18% and 28%

    (B) 5%, 12% and 18%

    (C) 5%, 12% and 40%

    (D) 5%, 18% and 40%

    Q6. The objective of the One Nation, One Ration Card scheme is to benefit:

    (A) The rural population

    (B) The Farmers

    (C) The Migrant labourers

    (D) The ration shopkeepers

    Passage 2

    I may here trace the history of the shaping of the Preamble because this would show that the Preamble was in conformity with the Constitution as it was finally accepted. Not only was the Constitution framed in the light of the Preamble, but the Preamble was ultimately settled in the light of the Constitution. In the earliest draft, the Preamble was something formal and read: "We, the people of India, seeking to promote the common good, do hereby, through our chosen representatives, enact, adopt and give to ourselves this Constitution. After the plan of June 3, 1947, which led to the decision to partition the country and to set up two independent Dominions of India and Pakistan, on June 8, 1947, a joint subcommittee of the Union Constitution and Provincial Constitution Committees took note that the objective resolution would require amendment in view of the latest announcement of the British Government. The announcement of June 3 had made it clear that full independence, in the form of Dominion Status, would be conferred on India as from August 15, 1947. After examining the implications of partition, the subcommittee thought that the question of making changes in the Objectives Resolution could appropriately be considered only when effect had actually been given to the June 3 Plan. Later on July 12, 1947, the special sub-committee again postponed consideration of the matter. The Union Constitution Committee provisionally accepted the Preamble as drafted by B.N. Rao and reproduced it in its report of July 4, 1947 without any change, with the tacit recognition at that stage that the Preamble would be finally based on the Objectives Resolution. In a statement circulated to members of the Assembly on July 18, 1947, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru inter alia observed that the Preamble was covered more or less by the Objectives Resolution which it was intended to incorporate in the final Constitution, subject to some modification on account of the political changes resulting from partition. (327 words) (Extracted with edits and revision from B Shiva Rao's Framing of India's Constitution)

    Q1. According to the passage, the relationship between the Constitution and the Preamble can best be described as:

    (A) The Preamble was drafted in isolation

    (B) The Constitution and the Preamble were framed independently of each other

    (C) Both the Constitution and the Preamble were shaped in light of each other

    (D) The Preamble had no relevance to the Constitution

    Q2. What did the earliest draft of the Preamble emphasize?

    (A) Liberty, equality, and fraternity

    (B) Sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic republic

    (C) Formal enactment by the people through representatives

    (D) Unity and integrity of the nation

    Q3. Which of the following is not enshrined in the Preamble of the Constitution of India?

    (A) Equality of status and of opportunity

    (B) Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship

    (C) Justice -moral, ethical and legal

    (D) Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual

    Q4. Which has been rightly arranged according to the Preamble of the Constitution of India?

    (A) Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic

    (B) Sovereign Secular Socialist Democratic Republic

    (C) Sovereign Socialist Democratic Secular Republic

    (D) Secular, Socialist, Sovereign and Democratic Republic

    Q5. The Preamble of the Constitution of India is finally based on:

    (A) The Objectives Resolution

    (B) The Report of the Union Constitution Committee

    (C) The June 3 Plan of the British Government

    (D) The Report of the special Sub-committee of the Constituent Assembly

    Q6. What was the role of Sir B. N. Rau in the making of the Indian Constitution?

    (A) Chairman of the Drafting Committee

    (B) Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly

    (C) President of the Constituent Assembly

    (D) Member of the Union Powers Committee

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