AIBE 21 SET A Question Paper 2026 PDF (OUT) with Solutions

Q1. Under Section 5 of the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, when do revised minimum wages come into force if the notification does not specify any date?

(A) After three months from the date of notification
(B) Immediately upon publication
(C) After six months from publication
(D) On approval by the Labour Commissioner

Answer: (A) After three months from the date of notification

Solution: As per Section 5 of the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, the appropriate Government may fix or revise minimum wages through a notification. If the notification specifies a date, the revised wages become effective from that date. If no date is mentioned, they automatically come into force after three months from the date of notification. Therefore, both conclusions in the question are correct.

Q2. Under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, a one-sided agreement imposing unfair terms on a consumer is generally described as:

(A) Unilateral
(B) Quasi-contractual
(C) Void ab initio
(D) Unconscionable

Answer: (D) Unconscionable

Solution: The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 recognizes unfair contract terms that create a significant imbalance between the rights of the parties. Such one-sided agreements are regarded as unconscionable because they unfairly favor one party and exploit the weaker bargaining position of the consumer. Hence, option (D) is correct.

Q3. Assertion (A): The Constitution of India does not provide for a strict separation of powers.

Reason (R): The constitutional framework is based on checks and balances among the organs of the State.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are false
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(D) (A) is true, but (R) is false

Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Solution: The Indian Constitution does not follow a rigid separation of powers like some other constitutions. Instead, it adopts a system of checks and balances where the Legislature, Executive, and Judiciary perform distinct functions while exercising limited control over each other. This prevents concentration of power and explains why some overlap exists among the organs of the State.

Q4. Which of the following statements regarding constitutional amendments and judicial review is correct?

I. Constitutional amendments are subject to judicial review.
II. Laws inserted into the Ninth Schedule after 24 April 1973 may be judicially reviewed if they violate the Basic Structure.
III. Parliament's power under Article 368 is unlimited.

(A) I and III
(B) I and II
(C) II and III
(D) I, II and III

Answer: (B) I and II

Solution: The Supreme Court in the landmark case of Kesavananda Bharati Judgment held that constitutional amendments are subject to judicial review and cannot damage the Basic Structure of the Constitution. Further, in I.R. Coelho, the Court ruled that laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after 24 April 1973 can be examined if they violate the Basic Structure. Therefore, Statements I and II are correct, while Statement III is incorrect.

Q5. If a third party claims independent title over property attached in execution proceedings, the claim shall:

(A) Be adjudicated by the executing court
(B) Require a separate civil suit
(C) Be decided by the District Judge only
(D) Be referred to arbitration

Answer: (A) Be adjudicated by the executing court

Solution: Under Order XXI Rules 58–59 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the executing court has the authority to investigate and decide objections or claims made by third parties regarding attached property. The objective is to avoid unnecessary multiplicity of proceedings. Therefore, such claims are generally determined within the execution proceedings themselves.

Q6. Which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 provides a summary remedy for maintenance of wives, children, and parents?

(A) Section 107
(B) Section 144
(C) Section 154
(D) Section 125

Answer: (D) Section 125

Solution: Section 125 CrPC provides a speedy and summary remedy to wives, children, and parents who are unable to maintain themselves. It is a welfare-oriented provision intended to prevent destitution and vagrancy by ensuring basic financial support from persons legally obligated to maintain them.

Q7. Under the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013, which statement is incorrect?

(A) The Collector must publish notice of acquisition.
(B) Interested persons may file objections.
(C) Objections are generally to be filed within the prescribed statutory period.
(D) Interested persons may file objections within six months of the notice.

Answer: (D) Interested persons may file objections within six months of the notice

Solution: The Land Acquisition Act framework requires objections to be filed within a limited statutory period, generally 30 days from the publication of notice. A six-month period is not prescribed for filing objections. Therefore, option (D) is incorrect and is the correct answer.

Q8. Under Section 120A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, when is mere agreement sufficient to constitute criminal conspiracy?

(A) When the intended offence is punishable with death, life imprisonment, or rigorous imprisonment
(B) Only when an overt act is committed
(C) Only when the conspiracy succeeds
(D) Only when financial loss occurs

Answer: (A) When the intended offence is punishable with death, life imprisonment, or rigorous imprisonment

Solution: Section 120A IPC defines criminal conspiracy as an agreement between two or more persons to commit an illegal act or a legal act by illegal means. For serious offences punishable with death, life imprisonment, or rigorous imprisonment, the agreement itself is sufficient to constitute the offence, and no overt act is required.

Q9. Assertion (A): A charitable trust carrying on organized commercial activities may qualify as an “industry” under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.

Reason (R): Such activities involve systematic cooperation between employer and employees for providing goods or services.

(A) Both false
(B) (A) true, (R) false
(C) Both true, but (R) is not the correct explanation
(D) Both true, and (R) is the correct explanation

Answer: (D) Both true, and (R) is the correct explanation

Solution: The definition of “industry” under Section 2(j) of the Industrial Disputes Act is broad and covers systematic activities carried out through employer-employee cooperation for production or services. Even charitable institutions may fall within this definition if they engage in organized commercial or service-oriented activities. Therefore, the employee may qualify as a workman and receive statutory protection.

Q10. Under Section 3(2) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, the Central Government is specifically empowered to:

(A) Levy environmental taxes
(B) Lay down standards for environmental quality
(C) Establish all State Pollution Control Boards
(D) Adjudicate environmental disputes

Answer: (B) Lay down standards for environmental quality

Solution: Section 3(2)(ii) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 empowers the Central Government to prescribe standards for the quality of the environment in its various aspects. This includes establishing environmental benchmarks and regulatory standards to protect and enhance environmental conditions nationwide.