AIBE 21 SET B Question Paper 2026 PDF (OUT) with Solutions

AIBE 21 Question Paper SET B with Answer Key – Free PDF

The AIBE 21 SET B Question Paper 2026, answer key with detailed solutions are available on Careers360. It is a helpful tool for understanding the test's format, type of questions, and level of difficulty of the AIBE 21 Question Paper 2026.

Students can also check other sets of the AIBE 21 Question Paper 2026.

• AIBE 21 SET A Question Paper PDF
• AIBE 21 SET C Question Paper PDF
• AIBE 21 SET D Question Paper PDF

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AIBE 21 SET B 2026 Exam Analysis

The AIBE exam's format may vary slightly each year. However, the general structure of SET B is unchanged:

AIBE 21 SET B Section-wise Questions with Detailed Solutions

Given below is the AIBE 21 SET B Question Paper 2026 with Detailed Solutions:

Q1. A contracts with B for construction work worth ₹50 lakh. B breaches the contract, forcing A to hire another contractor for ₹60 lakh. What remedy is available to A?

(A) A can recover ₹5 lakh as nominal damages
(B) A can seek specific performance only
(C) A can recover ₹10 lakh because B breached the contract
(D) A has no remedy once substitute performance is obtained

Answer: (C) A can recover ₹10 lakh because B breached the contract

Solution: Under the Specific Relief Act, 1963, an aggrieved party is entitled to compensation for losses caused by breach of contract. Since A had to spend an additional ₹10 lakh to complete the work through another contractor, this extra expenditure is recoverable as damages from B.

Q2. Under Section 233 of the Companies Act, 2013, which authority approves a fast-track merger and within what time is the process generally completed?

(A) 60–90 Days, Regional Director
(B) 180 Days, NCLT
(C) 120 Days, Registrar of Companies
(D) 90 Days, Central Government

Answer: (A) 60–90 Days, Regional Director

Solution: Section 233 of the Companies Act, 2013 provides a simplified fast-track merger mechanism for certain classes of companies. Such mergers are generally completed within 60–90 days and are approved by the Regional Director rather than the NCLT.

Q3. An employment contract prohibits an employee from engaging in any similar business anywhere in India for three years after leaving employment. What is the legal status of this clause?

(A) Valid and enforceable
(B) Partially enforceable
(C) Void – restrains lawful profession after employment ends
(D) Valid if agreed voluntarily

Answer: (C) Void – restrains lawful profession after employment ends

Solution: Section 27 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 renders agreements in restraint of trade void, except in limited circumstances such as sale of goodwill. A post-employment restriction preventing a person from carrying on a lawful profession is generally unenforceable in India.

Q4. What major procedural reform has been introduced under Section 105 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 regarding search and seizure?

(A) Presence of a Judicial Magistrate is mandatory
(B) Audio-video recording of the entire search and seizure process
(C) Search warrants must be approved by the High Court
(D) Searches can only be conducted during daytime

Answer: (B) Audio-video recording of the entire search and seizure process

Solution: Section 105 BNSS mandates audio-video electronic recording of search and seizure proceedings. The objective is to enhance transparency, accountability, and evidentiary reliability during criminal investigations.

Q5. Consider the following statements under the Copyright Act, 1957:

Statement I: Copyright in a posthumous literary work subsists for 60 years from the beginning of the calendar year following its first publication.

Statement II: Publication includes making the work available to the public through copies or communication to the public.

(A) Only Statement I is true
(B) Only Statement II is true
(C) Both Statements I and II are true
(D) Both Statements I and II are false

Answer: (C) Both Statements I and II are true

Solution: The Copyright Act, 1957 grants copyright protection to posthumous works for 60 years from the beginning of the calendar year following first publication. The Act also defines publication broadly to include communication of the work to the public and distribution through copies.

Q6. Under the Guardians and Wards Act, 1890, when may a guardian be appointed for a married female minor?

(A) Whenever her parents request it
(B) Only with the consent of the husband
(C) Only after she attains majority
(D) When the husband is found unfit by the Court

Answer: (D) When the husband is found unfit by the Court

Solution: Ordinarily, the husband is regarded as the guardian of a married female minor. However, where the Court finds the husband unfit or incapable of acting in the minor’s best interests, another guardian may be appointed.

Q7. Which of the following statements regarding constitutional amendments is correct?

I. Constitutional amendments are subject to judicial review.
II. Laws inserted into the Ninth Schedule after 24 April 1973 can be reviewed if they violate the Basic Structure.
III. Parliament's amending power under Article 368 is unlimited.

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II
(D) I, II and III

Answer: (C) I and II

Solution: The Basic Structure Doctrine established by the Supreme Court limits Parliament's amending power. Constitutional amendments can be judicially reviewed, and post-1973 Ninth Schedule laws may also be examined if they violate the Basic Structure. Therefore, Statements I and II are correct, while Statement III is incorrect.

Q8. Under Section 3(2) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, the Central Government may:

(A) Establish all State Pollution Control Boards
(B) Levy environmental taxes
(C) Adjudicate environmental disputes
(D) Plan and execute nationwide programmes for prevention, control and abatement of environmental pollution

Answer: (D) Plan and execute nationwide programmes for prevention, control and abatement of environmental pollution

Solution: Section 3(2) empowers the Central Government to take various measures for environmental protection, including planning and executing nationwide programmes aimed at preventing, controlling, and reducing environmental pollution.

Q9. What special safeguard applies to acquisition of Scheduled Tribes (ST) land under the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013?

(A) No Social Impact Assessment is required
(B) Only Collector approval is required
(C) Compensation is reduced by 50%
(D) Social Impact Assessment and Gram Sabha consultation/consent are mandatory

Answer: (D) Social Impact Assessment and Gram Sabha consultation/consent are mandatory

Solution: The Act provides enhanced protection to tribal communities. Acquisition of ST land requires Social Impact Assessment (SIA) and consultation or consent of the Gram Sabha, particularly in Scheduled Areas, before the acquisition process can proceed.

Q10. What is the minimum imprisonment prescribed under the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961 for giving or taking dowry?

(A) One year
(B) Three years
(C) Not less than five years
(D) Seven years

Answer: (C) Not less than five years

Solution: Under the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961, the offence of giving or taking dowry is punishable with imprisonment of not less than five years and a fine of not less than ₹15,000 or the value of the dowry, whichever is higher. This reflects the strict approach adopted by the law to curb the practice of dowry.