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AIBE 21 SET C Question Paper 2026 PDF (OUT) with Solutions
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The official answer key for the AIBE 21 2026 will help the candidates in checking their answers and finding out the scores they might be having. AIBE Candidates can also download the AIBE 21 SET C Question Paper 2026 PDF with answer keys and detailed solutions and analyse their performance, find mistakes and their chances of clearing the All India Bar Examination.
The Bar Council of India conducts the All India Bar Examination, which is a national level examination. This exam tests the fresh graduates in terms of their knowledge and practical understanding of the concepts. The graduates need to clear this exam if they wish to practice law in India and obtain the Certificate of Practice (COP).
Below is the AIBE 21 Question Paper SET C 2026 provided for the assistance of the candidates.
AIBE 21 Question Paper SET C with Answer Key – Free PDF
The answer key and solutions to the AIBE 21 SET C Question Paper 2026 have been provided by Careers360. It serves as an excellent resource for understanding the pattern, type of questions, and the level of difficulty of the AIBE 21 Question Paper 2026.
AIBE 21 SET C Official Answer Key with Solutions |
Students can also check other sets of the AIBE 21 Question Paper 2026.
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AIBE Question Paper with Solutions
Get a structured AIBE Question Paper, detailed answer key, and step-by-step explanations for every question.
Download NowAIBE 21 SET C 2026 Exam Analysis
The AIBE exam pattern may vary slightly every year. However, the general structure of SET C remains consistent:
Subject | Difficulty | Nature of Questions |
Constitutional Law | Easy-Moderate | Articles, PIL, Basic Structure, Ordinances |
Criminal Law (IPC/BNS) | Easy | Direct provision-based questions |
Criminal Procedure (CrPC/BNSS) | Easy | Sections, timelines, default bail, maintenance |
Evidence Act / BSA | Easy-Moderate | Electronic evidence, presumptions, documents |
CPC | Easy | Order-wise procedural questions |
Contract Act | Easy | Restraint of trade, suretyship |
Specific Relief Act | Moderate | Substituted performance, injunctions |
Companies Act | Moderate | Fast-track merger, class action |
Arbitration Act | Easy | Jurisdiction, Section 5, place of arbitration |
Labour Laws | Easy | Industrial Disputes Act, Minimum Wages |
Family Laws | Easy | Hindu Adoption, Christian Marriage, Parsi Law |
Taxation | Easy | Exemptions, gifts, deductions |
Environmental Law | Easy | Article 253, EPA provisions |
Professional Ethics | Easy | BCI Rules, misconduct |
Intellectual Property | Easy | Copyright, Patents |
AIBE 21 SET C Section-wise Questions with Detailed Solutions
Given below is the AIBE 21 SET C Question with Detailed Solutions:
Q1. A contracts with B to construct a cold storage facility for ₹50 lakh within 6 months. After the expiry of the time period, B fails to perform the contract. A immediately hires C to complete the construction at ₹60 lakh and later files a suit against B claiming ₹10 lakh as the additional cost incurred. Which statement is correct under the Specific Relief Act, 1963?
Answer: (D) A cannot recover the cost because A did not give B prior notice.
Solution: Under Section 20 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 (Substituted Performance), the aggrieved party must first give a written notice of at least 30 days to the defaulting party to perform the contract. Only after such notice and continued failure can substituted performance be obtained through a third party. Since A hired C without giving prior notice to B, A cannot recover the additional ₹10 lakh incurred.
Q2. Section 233 of the Companies Act, 2013 deals with "Fast Track Merger". What is the time duration and the concerned authority for approval?
Answer: (A) 60–90 Days, Regional Director
Solution: Section 233 provides a simplified merger process for certain classes of companies, such as small companies and holding-subsidiary companies. The scheme is approved by the Regional Director (RD) instead of the NCLT, making the process faster. The approval process generally takes around 60–90 days, subject to compliance with statutory requirements and absence of objections.
Q3. Ramesh's job contract with M/s XYZ bars him from joining any rival software firm in India for three years post-resignation. But after resigning, he joins a competitor within three years. XYZ files a suit to enforce the restrictive clause. Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, what is the legal position?
Answer: (C) Void – restrains lawful profession after employment ends.
Solution: Section 27 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 declares agreements in restraint of trade, profession, or business as void, except in limited circumstances such as the sale of goodwill. A post-employment restriction preventing an employee from joining a competitor is generally unenforceable in India. Since the clause restrains Ramesh from carrying on a lawful profession after leaving employment, it is void and cannot be enforced by XYZ.
4. Under Section 105 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, what is now a mandatory requirement for the process of search and seizure conducted by the police?
(A) The acquisition of a signed written confession from the occupant of the premises
(B) The presence of a Judicial Magistrate during the search
(C) The presence of at least five local residents as independent witnesses
(D) The documentation of the entire search and seizure process via audio-video electronic recording
Correct Answer: (D)
Solution: Section 105 of the BNSS, 2023 introduces a modern safeguard by mandating audio-video electronic recording of search and seizure operations. This enhances transparency, accountability, and evidentiary reliability. Therefore, option (D) is correct.
5. Under the Uniform Civil Code Rules, Uttarakhand, 2025, when is an application for declaration of legal heir(s) forwarded to the Registrar General?
(A) After thirty days of receipt if the Registrar does not take action
(B) After ten days of receipt if the Registrar does not take action
(C) After fifteen days of receipt if the Registrar does not take action
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C)
Solution: Under the Uniform Civil Code Rules, Uttarakhand, 2025, if the Registrar fails to act on an application for declaration of legal heirs within 15 days of receipt, the application is forwarded to the Registrar General for further action. Hence, option (C) is correct.
6. Which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, provides a summary legal remedy for the maintenance of spouses, children, and parents who are unable to support themselves?
(A) Section 125
(B) Section 320
(C) Section 107
(D) Section 144
Correct Answer: (A)
Solution: Section 125 CrPC provides a quick and summary remedy for maintenance of wives, children, and parents who are unable to maintain themselves. Its objective is to prevent destitution and vagrancy. Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.
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Have a question related to AIBE ?
Hello Dear Student,
The All India Bar Examination (AIBE) covers 19 major legal subjects, carrying a high-weightage focus on Constitutional Law (8–12 questions) and Family Law including Hindu and Muslim law (6–8 questions)
You can check, find and access more information here:
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https://law.careers360.com/articles/aibe-important-topics
Hope it helps!
Hello Dear Student,
Could you provide more information so that i could help you further!
Hello Venkataharanadh
Please check the link given below for the answer key:
https://law.careers360.com/articles/aibe-answer-key
Hope it helps.
Hello Dear Student,
Could you provide more information so that i could help you further!
Hello Rajnesh
Yes, you have passed the AIBE 21 exam. If you score 46 marks, you meet the minimum qualifying criteria.
You can check the minimum pass requirements for the All India Bar Examination from the link given below:
https://law.careers360.com/articles/aibe-21-passing-marks-2026
Hope it helps.
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