CLAT 2027 Daily Questions Series: 4th November GK and Legal Reasoning Answers

CLAT 2027 Daily Questions: Legal Reasoning and GK

CLAT 2027 GK Questions from Daily News: November 4, 2026

Given below are practice questions curated from November 4, 2026 news articles. 

Q1. If a protest affects traders' business, how should the court deal with the conflict between these rights?

A. Always give priority to the right to protest
B. Always give priority to the right to do business
C. Balance both rights and consider reasonable restrictions
D. Leave the decision entirely to the police

Answer: C

Q2. Which Article gives citizens the right to gather peacefully without weapons?

A. Article 19(1)(a)
B. Article 19(1)(b)
C. Article 19(1)(g)
D. Article 21

Answer: B

Q3. What was Delhi Police's main argument about protests at Jantar Mantar?

A. Protests are not allowed in India
B. The right to protest does not include the right to choose any particular location
C. People can protest anywhere without restrictions
D. Only political parties can hold protests

Answer: B

Q4. Which law deals with punishment for making a false declaration in electoral matters?

A. Section 31 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950
B. Article 324
C. Section 8 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951
D. Article 326

Answer: A

Q5. Why were some previously registered voters worried about filing Form 6 again?

A. The form had been withdrawn
B. It asks applicants to declare that they are first-time voters
C. It requires permission from a court
D. It involves a registration fee

Answer: B

Q6. Who decides claims and objections relating to a constituency's voter list?

A. Booth Level Officer
B. Electoral Registration Officer
C. Rajya Sabha Returning Officer
D. State Governor

Answer: B

Q7. Which reports are mainly examined by the Public Accounts Committee?

A. Election Commission reports
B. Comptroller and Auditor General reports
C. Finance Commission reports
D. Law Commission reports

Answer: B

Q8. Why is an Opposition member traditionally appointed as PAC chairperson?

A. The Constitution makes it compulsory under Article 148
B. It helps ensure independent checks on government spending
C. The Speaker cannot head any committee
D. The ruling party has no members in the PAC

Answer: B

Q9. Which Article deals with the office of the CAG of India?

A. Article 76
B. Article 112
C. Article 148
D. Article 324

Answer: C

Q10. What kind of climate funding is India seeking from developed countries?

A. Mostly private loans
B. Predictable funding, mainly from public sources and on easy terms
C. Voluntary funding with no fixed commitment
D. Funding only for technology transfer

Answer: B

Q11. Which principle supports India's demand that developed countries take greater responsibility for climate finance?

A. Polluter Pays Principle and Common but Differentiated Responsibilities
B. Sovereign Immunity
C. Doctrine of Lapse
D. Rule of Law

Answer: A

Q12. What does Article 9.1 of the Paris Agreement deal with?

A. Carbon markets
B. Financial support from developed countries to developing countries
C. Forest protection
D. Ocean pollution

Answer: B

Q13. Which body helps India and Bangladesh discuss issues related to shared rivers?

A. Indus Commission
B. Joint Rivers Commission
C. SAARC Secretariat
D. BIMSTEC Council

Answer: B

Q14. What does it mean when a country agrees to extend a treaty for another period?

A. The treaty is terminated
B. The treaty is renewed
C. The treaty becomes void
D. The treaty is rejected

Answer: B

Q15. Why do countries sign agreements on rivers that flow across their borders?

A. To decide a common currency
B. To set rules for sharing and using river water
C. To decide visa policies
D. To merge their armed forces

Answer: B

Daily Practice Questions for CLAT 2027 Legal Reasoning

Given below are LR questions from previous years’  CLAT question papers.

Passage 1

In India, the legal landscape surrounding online defamation is a subject of significant interest and debate. With the rise of social media and online platforms, cases of online defamation have become increasingly common. Defamation refers to making false statements about someone that harm their reputation. Online defamation includes defamatory statements made on the internet, including social media, blogs, forums, and other online platforms. 

One critical aspect of online defamation is determining the liability of intermediaries, such as social media platforms or websites, for defamatory content posted by users. Section 79 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, provides a safe harbor for intermediaries, stating that they are not liable for third-party content if they act as intermediaries and follow due diligence in removing or disabling access to the content once notified.

However, determining whether an intermediary has fulfilled its due diligence obligations can be complex. The Indian judiciary has been actively interpreting this provision. One significant case is Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, in which the Supreme Court clarified that intermediaries are required to act upon a valid court order or government directive for content removal, not upon private complaints. 

The court also emphasized that the intermediaries should not take a proactive role in monitoring content, as this could potentially infringe on free speech. While the law provides a safe harbor, it does not absolve intermediaries from their responsibilities. 

Online defamation cases often involve a balancing act between the right to freedom of expression and the right to reputation. The Indian legal system requires a careful examination of the content, context, and intent of the statements to determine whether they qualify as defamatory. Additionally, the plaintiff in an online defamation case must prove that the statement was false, damaging to their reputation, and made with a degree of fault, such as negligence or actual malice. 

Q1. What is the primary focus of the passage? 

(A) The rise of social media in India. 

(B) The legal aspects of online defamation in India. 

(C) The role of intermediaries in online content. 

(D) The importance of free speech on the internet. 

Answer: B

Q2. What is online defamation, as described in the passage? 

(A) Making harmful statements about someone in person. 

(B) False statements made on the internet that harm someone’s reputation. 

(C) Online harassment. 

(D) A form of political activism. 

Answer: B

Q3. What is the significance of Section 79 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, as mentioned in the passage? 

(A) It defines defamation laws in India. 

(B) It provides safe harbor for intermediaries in cases of online defamation. 

(C) It regulates the content on social media platforms. 

(D) It allows private complaints against online defamation. 

Answer: B

Q4. According to the Supreme Court in the Shreya Singhal v. Union of India case, under what circumstances should intermediaries act in response to content removal? 

(A) Upon receiving a private complaint. 

(B) Upon a valid court order or government directive. 

(C) Proactively monitor content. 

(D) Only if the content is found to be defamatory

Answer: B

Q5. How does the Indian legal system balance the Right to Freedom of Expression and the Right to Reputation in online defamation cases? 

(A) By favoring freedom of expression over reputation. 

(B) By favoring reputation over freedom of expression. 

(C) By carefully examining the content, context, and intent of statements. 

(D) By absolving intermediaries of their responsibilities. 

Answer: C

Q6. In an online defamation case, what must the plaintiff prove about the defamatory statement? 

(A) That it was political activism. 

(B) That it was made with good intentions. 

(C) That it was true and intended to inform the public. 

(D) That it was false, damaging to their reputation, and made with a degree of fault. 

Answer: D

Q7. What is the role of intermediaries in the context of online defamation cases? 

(A) To actively monitor and censor content. 

(B) To act upon private complaints for content removal. 

(C) To completely absolve themselves of liability. 

(D) To encourage online defamation.

Answer: C

Passage 2

The Editors Guild of India has expressed concern over the “draconian provisions” of the Press and Registration of Periodicals (PRP) Bill, 2023, that can have an adverse impact on freedom of the press. 

The Guild added: “Editors Guild of India would like the proposed bill to ensure that publishing of news in India remains free of encumbrances and intrusive checks on publishers by the Registrar, and that the primary emphasis of the Registrar and the PRP remains ‘registration’ and not ‘regulation’, as the latter has the potential of restricting freedom of the press.” 

“In the definitions section, the term ‘specified authority’ gives power to government agencies beyond the Press Registrar to conduct the functions of the Registrar, which could even include police and other law enforcement agencies. Given the intrusive, expansive, and vague nature of powers that the bill in any case allows to the Press Registrar, the power to further delegate this power to other government agencies, including law enforcement agencies, is deeply distressing,” the Guild said. 

The statement says sections 4(1) and 11(4) allow the Registrar to deny the right to bring out a periodical and cancel the certificate of registration of a periodical to persons convicted of “terrorist act or unlawful activity” or “for having done anything against the security of the State”. 

“Interestingly, the PRB Act, 1867, had no such provisions. Given the liberal and arbitrary use of UAPA (which is the basis for defining ‘terrorist act’ and ‘unlawful activity’), as well as other criminal laws, including sedition, against journalists and media organisations to suppress freedom of speech, the Guild is deeply concerned by the introduction of these new provisions, and the way they can be misused to deny the right to bring out news publications to persons who are critical of governments,” it said.

Among the other worrisome provisions listed by the Guild is Section 6(b), which gives power to the Press Registrar (as well as any other “specified authority”) to enter the premises of a periodical to “inspect or take copies of the relevant records or documents or ask any questions necessary for obtaining any information required to be furnished”. 

[Extracted, with edits and revisions from “Editors Guild of India expresses concern over draconian provisions of the Press and Registration of Periodicals Bills, 2023” published in The Telegraph dated 07-08-2023] 

Q1. The PRP Bill defines “newspaper” to mean a periodical of loose-folded sheets usually printed on newsprint and brought out daily or at least once a week, containing information on current events, public news or comments on public news. Who among the following is covered by the definition of newspaper? 

(A) Mr. X publishing news content on digital media. 

(B) Mr. Y publishing books containing the comments of the public on public news. 

(C) Mr. Z publishing news content in print media every week. 

(D) All of the above. 

Answer: C

Q2. Who among the following is not eligible to publish a periodical as per the PRP Bill? 

(A) Mr. A, convicted of waging war against the Government of India.

(B) Mr. B, accused of unlawful activities under the Unlawful Activities Prevention Act. 

(C) Mr. C, accused of terrorist activities under the Unlawful Activities Prevention Act. 

(D) All of the above. 

Answer: A

Q3. Which of the following is a threat to the freedom of the press in India? 

(A) Liberal use of Unlawful Activities Prevention Act against Journalists refrains journalists from tracing, tracking and publishing investigative articles because they apprehend that they might be linked with criminals. 

(B) Use of Sedition laws against journalists under the guise that through their articles they are promoting hatred and exciting disaffection against the government. 

(C) Levy of GST on newspapers. 

(D) Both (a) and (b). 

Answer: D

Q4. The PRP Bill defines “specified authority” to mean a District Magistrate or Collector or such other officer as the State Government or, as the case may be, Union Territory Administration may, by notification, specify. The PRP Bill is criticised by the Editors Guild of India because: 

(A) The definition of specified authority is too wide and can include even officers below the level of Collector. The PRP Bill enables the specified authority to perform the functions of the Press Registrar General. 

(B) The PRP Bill confers various powers on the Press Registrar General, including the power to register, deny registration, cancel the registration, etc. 

(C) The PRP Bill enables the specified authority to enter the premises of a periodical for inspection 

(D) All of the above.

Answer: D

Q5. Freedom of the press is not specifically guaranteed under the Constitution of India but is implied in Article 19(1)(a), i.e., Freedom of Speech and Expression. Therefore, freedom of the press is part of fundamental rights. 

(A) Freedom of the press being a fundamental right, no law can be made for registration and denial of registration of newspapers. 

(B) Fundamental rights are not absolute rights and reasonable restrictions can be imposed on the exercise of fundamental rights and therefore, laws such as the PRP Bill can be enacted. 

(C) Freedom of the press being a fundamental right, journalists and the press are exempt from the operation of general criminal law of the country. 

(D) None of the above. 

Answer: B

Q6. PRP Bill denies the right to publish periodicals to a person who has been found to have committed a terrorist act and has been convicted by a competent Court in India. Which of the following is the most appropriate reason? 

(A) The right to publish a periodical is denied because criminals do not possess any fundamental rights. 

(B) The right to publish a periodical is denied because such a person is a threat to society and the nation. 

(C) The right to publish a periodical is denied because they may not be neutral in reporting and may incite violence and spread disaffection against the state, being themselves involved in terrorist acts. 

(D) All of the above.

Answer: C