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The All India Bar Examination (AIBE) 2026 organized by the Bar Council of India (BCI) tests the candidate’s knowledge and practical understanding of various subjects that are mandatory for legal practice. One of the most crucial subjects among those included in the AIBE 2026 syllabus is Law of Evidence, which carries a considerable weightage in previous years’ examinations. The coming into effect of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023, in place of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, means that one needs to prepare as per the new evidence law.
The Evidence Act and BSA part of AIBE 22 2026 preparation revolves around Bare Act provisions, Burden of Proof, Confession, Admission, Presumption, Witness AIBE test, and Electronic Evidence. Current trends in AIBE examinations indicate that there is an increase in the number of application-based questions on digital evidence and their admissibility under the law. As passing AIBE 22 2026 is compulsory to become eligible for getting Certificate of Practice (COP), it becomes crucial for candidates to have good knowledge of frequently asked PYQs and important sections from the Evidence Act and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam.
These are the AIBE 2026 Most Repeated Evidence Act and Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA) PYQs:
Q1: Which section of the Indian Evidence Act states that an accomplice is a competent witness?
Answer: Section 133.
Section 133 of the Indian Evidence Act provides that an accomplice is a competent witness against an accused person. A conviction is not illegal merely because it proceeds upon the uncorroborated testimony of an accomplice. However, courts generally seek corroboration as a rule of prudence under Illustration (b) of Section 114. In AIBE, questions are often asked regarding competency, reliability, and corroboration of accomplice testimony.
Q2: Under Section 118, who is a competent witness?
Answer: Any person capable of understanding questions and giving rational answers.
Section 118 states that all persons are competent to testify unless the court considers them incapable due to tender age, old age, disease, mental incapacity, or any other similar cause. Even children may testify if they can understand questions and provide rational answers. AIBE frequently asks conceptual questions regarding child witnesses, mentally challenged persons, and witness competency principles.
Q3: Facts forming part of the same transaction are relevant under which section?
Answer: Section 6.
Section 6 embodies the doctrine of Res Gestae, meaning facts connected with a transaction are relevant if they form part of the same occurrence. Statements made immediately before, during, or after an incident may become admissible if closely connected with the main event. In AIBE, practical questions involving spontaneous statements and surrounding circumstances are commonly framed from this doctrine.
Q4: If a person is unheard of for 7 years, under which section is death presumed?
Answer: Section 108.
Section 108 provides that when a person has not been heard of for seven years by those who would naturally have heard from them, the court may presume the person to be dead. However, the exact time of death is not presumed. This is one of the most repeated factual questions in AIBE examinations.
Q5: Leading questions are generally allowed during which examination?
Answer: Cross-examination.
A leading question suggests the answer within the question itself. Under Sections 141–143 of the Evidence Act, leading questions are generally permitted during cross-examination but not during examination-in-chief or re-examination without court permission. AIBE often asks direct questions about where leading questions are permissible.
Q6: Statements made by a dead person become relevant under which provision?
Answer: Section 32.
Section 32 makes statements of a person relevant when the cause of their death comes into question. Such statements are known as dying declarations. The principle is based on the maxim “Nemo moriturus praesumitur mentire”, meaning a person on the verge of death is unlikely to lie. AIBE repeatedly tests the essentials, admissibility, and evidentiary value of dying declarations.
Q6: Which sections deal with expert opinion?
Answer: Sections 45 and 46.
Section 45 states that opinions of experts are relevant when the court has to form an opinion upon foreign law, science, art, handwriting, or fingerprints. Section 46 provides supporting facts relevant to expert opinions. Medical experts, handwriting experts, and forensic experts are common examples. Questions from this topic are frequently asked in both direct and practical formats.
Q7: Oral accounts of the contents of a document are what type of evidence?
Answer: Secondary evidence.
Secondary evidence refers to evidence that is not the original document itself but substitutes for it under certain conditions. Sections 63 and 65 explain the kinds and admissibility of secondary evidence. Oral accounts of a document’s contents are generally considered secondary evidence when given by someone who has seen the document. AIBE often asks about conceptual distinctions between primary and secondary evidence.
Q8: Presumption regarding dowry death is provided under which section?
Answer: Section 113B.
Section 113B creates a presumption against the accused in cases of dowry death where it is shown that, soon before death, the woman was subjected to cruelty or harassment for dowry. The burden shifts to the accused to rebut the presumption. This is an important and repeatedly asked provision in AIBE 2026 due to its practical relevance in criminal trials.
20–25% of the whole AIBE 22 paper is based on AIBE Criminal Law, being one of the high weightage subjects.
New laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA) have substituted IPC, CrPC, and Evidence Act, hence AIBE will check the understanding of new laws' structure and differences.
Scenario based conceptual questions can be anticipated since these laws have undergone reorganisation, redrawing, and restructuring.
High scoring subject since the definitions, illustrations, exceptions, and procedure are direct and certain.
Every year section based questions are asked, and the new sections will be tested (e.g., “In which section of BNSS is the anticipatory bail explained?”).
Practically, daily practice of advocates consists of criminal law (FIR, arrest, bail, evidence, and trial), therefore AIBE checks for basic competency in the same.
Most Criminal Law questions are repeated yearly with slight variation in wording, hence it's possible to score in it easily if PYQs are practiced.
Understanding of Criminal Law helps in other subjects too such as Procedure, Evidence, and Ethics.
Learning high yield chapters of Criminal Law makes your AIBE score go up.
On Question asked by student community
Hello Dear Student,
Could you provide more information so that i could help you further!
Hello Venkataharanadh
Please check the link given below for the answer key:
https://law.careers360.com/articles/aibe-answer-key
Hope it helps.
Hello Dear Student,
Could you provide more information so that i could help you further!
Hello Rajnesh
Yes, you have passed the AIBE 21 exam. If you score 46 marks, you meet the minimum qualifying criteria.
You can check the minimum pass requirements for the All India Bar Examination from the link given below:
https://law.careers360.com/articles/aibe-21-passing-marks-2026
Hope it helps.
Hello Dharamvir,
The AIBE (All India Bar Examination) is conducted for law graduates seeking a Certificate of Practice to practice law in India. Solving previous years' question papers helps candidates understand the exam pattern, important legal topics, and question trends.
Here are the links to the last 10 years' AIBE
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