Planning for Law School in 2025: Check Out Top Law Entrance Exams in India You Should Be Eyeing!

Planning for Law School in 2025: Check Out Top Law Entrance Exams in India You Should Be Eyeing!

Edited By Sukriti Sahoo | Updated on Dec 06, 2024 12:48 PM IST | #CLAT

Law Education is becoming popular in India like other fields such as medicine and engineering. This field of law has become one of the most pursued career choices for students. Most of the law colleges in India offer admission to its law courses on the basis of score in the law entrance exams. Planning to take admission to law school in 2025, candidates are recommend to appear for the top law entrance exams in India. Candidates will have to choose the law entrance exams on the basis of their preference of course and college. The major top law entrance exam in India 2025 are CLAT, AILET, SLAT, MH CET Law and TS LAWCET. Law School Admission Council (LSAC) will not conduct the popular law entrance exams in India namely the Law School Admission Test India 2025 (LSAT India). The LSAT-India exam has been discontinued.

Planning for Law School in 2025: Check Out Top Law Entrance Exams in India You Should Be Eyeing!
Planning for Law School in 2025: Check Out Top Law Entrance Exams in India You Should Be Eyeing!

CLAT is considered as one of the best law entrance exam, conducted once a year for admission to 5-year LLB and LLM courses in 24 National Law Universities (NLUs). Other top law entrance exam is AILET which is conducted for admission to BA LLB and LLM courses at National Law University, Delhi. If a candidate if eyeing to take admission in any of the national law universities, the only choice for them is to appear in the Common Law Admission Test (CLAT) and All India Entrance Test (AILET). Other than CLAT and AILET, there are other law entrance exams at the national, state and university level to take admission in top law colleges. Law aspirants can get detailed information about the top law entrance exams in India.

List of Top Law Entrance Exams in India 2025

Exam

Conducting Body

CLAT - Common Law Admission Test

The Consortium of National Law Universities (NLUs)

AILET- All India Entrance Test

The National Law University, Delhi

Maharashtra Common Entrance Test for Law

Directorate of Higher Education Mumbai

SLAT- Symbiosis Law Admission Test

Symbiosis International (Deemed University)

Telangana Law Common Entrance Test

Osmania University, Hyderabad

Common Law Admission Test (CLAT)

The Common Law Admission Test is also known as CLAT. It is a National Level Exam conducted by Consortium of NLUs for admission to national law universities of India. CLAT 2025 was conducted on December 1, 2024, in offline mode. CLAT is one of the popular and top law entrance exams in India and candidates can get admission into integrated five-year law courses and LLM programmes of participating NLUs through CLAT. Out of 26 NLUs, 24 are participating in the exam. NLU Prayagraj and India International University of Legal Education and Research (IIULER) Goa have also joined the CLAT Consortium. The difficulty level of the CLAT exam is of class 12th level. This exam is the main gateway to get admission to prestigious NLUs.

Particulars

Details

Name of Exam

Common Law Admission Test

Short Form

CLAT

Conducting Body

Consortium of National Law Universities (CNLU)

Exam Level

National Level Exam

Exam Duration

2 hours

Frequency of conduct

Once a year

CLAT UG 2025 Eligibility Criteria

Criteria

Eligibility Criteria

Educational Qualifications

Candidates must have completed their class 12 from a recognised board.


Candidates currently in their class 12 and are due to pass out in 2025 are also eligible to apply.

Minimum marks required in qualifying exam

General/OBC/PWD/NRI/PIO/OCI candidates need to score a minimum of 45%.


SC/ST category candidates need to score a minimum of 40% aggregate marks in their class 12

CLAT exam Age Limit

There is no age limit for appearing in the CLAT 2025 exam.

Also check: CLAT Exam Date 2025

CLAT PG 2025 Eligibility Criteria

Criteria

Eligibility Criteria

Educational Qualifications

Candidates must have completed their 5-year LLB or 3-year LLB graduation from any law school recognized by the Bar Council of India.


Candidates who are appearing for their final year LLB exams are also eligible to apply.

Minimum marks in the qualifying exam

General/OBC/PWD/NRI/PIO/OCI candidates need to score a minimum of 50% in their LLB undergraduate degree.


SC/SC category candidates need to score a minimum of 45% aggregate marks in their LLB

Age Limit

There is no age limit for appearing in CLAT PG 2025 exam

CLAT Exam Pattern 2025

Category

Details

Mode

Offline mode (pen paper-based mode)

Type of questions

Objective-type questions

Number of questions

CLAT UG - 120 questions

CLAT PG - 120 questions

CLAT Total marks

120 marks (Both CLAT UG and CLAT PG)

CLAT UG marking scheme

Correct answer - 1 mark

Incorrect answer - 0.25 marks deduction

Un-attempted questions - No negative marking

Language

English

CLAT 2025 Marking Scheme

Particulars

Details

Correct response

1 mark

Incorrect response

-0.25 mark

Unanswered question

0 mark

To know more about CLAT 2025:

All India Entrance Test (AILET)

The All India Law Entrance Test (AILET) was conducted by National Law University, Delhi. It is another top law entrance exam conducted on December 8, 2024, in offline mode. NLU Delhi will conduct AILET 2025 in offline mode at designated exam centres across the country. Though the AILET 2025 exam, candidates will get admission into the 5-year BA LLB programme of the university. AILET exam is held once a year. Due to insufficient number of candidates, NLU Delhi will not conduct the exam in Kota, Bilaspur, siliguri and Shimla.

Particulars

Details

Name of Exam

All India Law Entrance Test

Short Form

AILET

Conducting Body

National Law University Delhi

Exam Level

National Level Exam

Exam Duration

120 minutes

Frequency of conduct

Once a year

AILET 2025 BA LLB Eligibility Criteria

Criteria

Eligibility Criteria

Educational qualification

Candidates must have passed their class 12 exams


Candidates who are appearing for their class 12 exams are also eligible to apply

Minimum marks

45% marks (40% marks for SC/ ST/ PwD candidates )

AILET eligibility age limit

No age limit

AILET 2025 LLM Eligibility Criteria

Criteria

Eligibility Criteria

Educational qualification

Candidates must have completed a 3-year LLB or a 5-year LLB


Candidates who are appearing for their final year exams are also eligible to apply

Minimum marks

50% (45% for SC/ST/PwD candidates)

Age limit

No age limit

AILET Exam Pattern 2025 Overview

Particulars

BA LLB

LLM

Mode of exam

Offline

Offline

Frequency

Once a year

Once a year

Conducting body

NLU Delhi

NLU Delhi

Type of questions

MCQs

MCQs

TIme

120 minutes

120 minutes

No. of questions

150 questions

100 questions

Marking scheme

1 mark per question

1 mark per question

Negative marking

0.25 marks for every wrong answer

0.25 marks for every wrong answer

Total marks

150 marks

150 marks

AILET BA LLB Exam Pattern 2025

Sections

No. of questions

Marks

English

50

50

General knowledge and current affairs

30

30

Reasoning

70

70

AILET LLM Exam Pattern 2025

Section

No. of questions

Marks

MCQs on different areas of law

100

100

Get more details about AILET 2025 by checking out the links given below:

Maharashtra Common Entrance Test for Law- MH CET Law

Maharashtra Common Entrance Test for Law (MH CET Law) is a state-level entrance exam conducted by the Directorate of Higher Education (DHE). Through MH CET Law 2025, candidates will get admission into five-year LLB and 3-year LLB courses of participating colleges in Maharashtra. It will be conducted in online mode separately for 3-year LLB and 5-year LLB at test centres across India. Around 150 law colleges in the state accepted the MH CET Law scores and a total of 147 law colleges accept MH CET law scores.

Particulars

Details

Name of Exam

Maharashtra Common Entrance Test for Law

Short Form

MH CET Law

Conducting Body

Directorate of Higher Education Mumbai

Exam Level

State Level Exam

Exam Duration

2 Hours

Frequency of conduct

Once a year

MH CET Law Eligibility Criteria for LLB 5 years

Criteria

Eligibility Criteria

Minimum educational qualification

10+2 or equivalent from a recognised board

Passing marks for MH CET LAW 5 years

45% for general/ EWS, 42% for OBC, 40% for SC/ST category

Age limit

No age limit

MH CET Law Exam Pattern 2025 Overview

Particulars

Details

Mode of exam

Online

Type of question paper

Multiple choice question based (MCQs)

Language

English and Marathi

Duration of exam

120 minutes (2 hours)

Total number of questions

150 questions

MH CET Law total marks

150 marks

Marking scheme

One mark for each correct answer

Negative marking

No negative marking

You can go through the following links to know more about MH CET Law 2025:

SLAT- Symbiosis Law Admission Test

Symbiosis Law Admission Test (SLAT) was conducted by Symbiosis International (Deemed University) for admissions into the 5-year integrated law courses of SLS. SLAT is a Computer Based Test. Candidates who fulfill the SLAT eligibility criteria 2025 will be eligible for admission to the the SLAT 2025 exam. Ther are five sections in the SLAT 2025 exam - Logical Reasoning, Legal Reasoning, Analytical Reasoning, Reading Comprehension, and General Knowledge and a total of 60 questions in the SLAT exam pattern.

Particulars

Details

Name of Exam

Symbiosis Law Admission Test

Short Form

SLAT

Conducting Body

Symbiosis International (Deemed University)

Exam Level

University Level

Exam Duration

60 minutes or 1 hour

Frequency of conduct

Twice a year

SLAT Eligibility Criteria 2025

Criteria

Eligibility Criteria

Educational qualifications

Class 12 pass or equivalent. Candidates appearing for their class 12 exams can also apply provided they submit their qualifying certificates at the time of admission.

Minimum marks

45% for General/ OBC category and 40% for SC/ST category

Age limit

No age limit

SLAT Exam Pattern 2025 - Overview

Criteria

Eligibility Criteria

SLAT Exam Mode

Offline Mode (Computer Based Test)

Conducting Body

Symbiosis International (Deemed University)

Number of Questions

60 Questions

Type of Questions

Multiple Choice Questions

Language

English

Marking Scheme

Correct Answer - 1 Mark

Incorrect Answer - 0 Marks

Exam Level

National level

Read more about SLAT 2025 by clicking on the links below:

Telangana Law Common Entrance Test- TS LAWCET

Telangana Law Common Entrance Test (TS LAWCET) was conducted by Osmania University on behalf of TGCHE. Through TS LAWCET 2025, candidates will get admitted to 5-year integrated LLB and 3-year LLB courses offered at the law colleges in Telangana. The TS LAWCET 2025 exam will be conducted in online mode at designated exam centres for TS LAWCET 2025 situated across Telangana and Andhra Pradesh. Candidates who meet the eligibility criteria for TS LAWCET 2025 can apply and secure admission at the law colleges in Telangana. Candidates must note that There is no age limit for candidates appearing for the TS LAWCET exam.

Particulars

Details

Name of Exam

Telangana Law Common Entrance Test

Short Form

TS LAWCET

Conducting Body

Osmania University Hyderabad

Exam Level

State Level

Exam Duration

1 Hour 30 Minutes

Frequency of conduct

Once a year

TS LAWCET Eligibility Criteria 2025 Details

Course

Minimum qualification

Minimum marks

Age limit

5-year LLB

12th grade or its equivalent

General Category - 45%

OBC Category - 42%

SC/ST - 40%

There is no TS LAWCET age eligibility criteria.

3-year LLB

Graduate in any stream in 10+2+3 pattern or its equivalent


TS LAWCET Exam Pattern 2025 - Overview

Particulars

Details

Duration

90 Minutes

Number of Sections

3

Number of Questions

120

Total Marks

120

Marking Scheme

1 Mark per question

Language

English, Telugu, Urdu

Check the following links to know more about TS LAWCET 2025:

Other Top Law Entrance Exams in India 2025

Exam Name

Courses Offered

AP LAWCET

5-year LLB, 3-year LLB

CUET BA LLB

5-year LLB

CUET LLB

3-year LLB

KLEE

5-year LLB, 3-year LLB, LLM

ULET

3-year LLB

Lucknow University LLB

5-year LLB, 3-year LLB

CU BA LLB

5-year LLB

AIAT

3-year LLB

PU BA LLB

5-year LLB

PU LLB

3-year LLB

RULET

5-year LLB

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

1. Which is the best entrance exam for law in India?

Some of the best entrance exam for law in India are CLAT, AILET, SLAT, MH CET Law and TS LAWCET.

2. Which college is best for law?

As per NIRF Ranking 2024, the best colleges for law in India are National Law School of India University Bengaluru, National Law University New Delhi, Nalsar University of Law Hyderabad, The West Bengal National University of Juridical Sciences and Symbiosis Law School.

3. Which law is highest in demand?

The popular specialities in law such as Corporate law, criminal law, human rights law, and tax law are highet in demand wich a candiidate can select while planming to study law in India.

4. Which private college is best for law?

The private colleges that are best for law are Symbiosis Law School Pune, Siksha `O` Anusandhan Bhubaneswar, Kalinga Institute of Industrial Technology and Saveetha Institute of Medical and Technical Sciences.

5. What are the top law entrance exam after 12th?

Candidates can appear for the top law entrance exam such as CLAT, AILET, TS LAWCET, MH CET Law and SLAT after 12th.

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Questions related to CLAT

Have a question related to CLAT ?

Hi,

Based on previous year analysis, According to your CLAT 2024 AIR and category some of the National Law University in which you have possibility to get a seat are given below

  • Himachal pradesh National Law University
  • Gujarat National Law University
  • National Law University, Jalandhar
  • Dr B.R Ambedkar National Law University, Sonipat
  • National Law Institute University, Bhopal

You can predict more law colleges in which you have chances to get a seat using the CLAT college predictor tool:

https://law.careers360.com/clat-college-predictor

Hope this information will help you

Hello aspirant,

On October 22, 2024, the CLAT Registration Process 2025 was closed by the Consortium of NLUs. On October 25, the CLAT Application Correction Window 2025 concluded. On July 7, 2024, the Consortium published the CLAT Notification 2025. All of the crucial information about the CLAT Exam was included in the announcement. Candidates will only receive admit cards to take the CLAT exam in 2025 if they complete the application and pay the cost.

To know more information, you can visit our website through following link:

https://law.careers360.com/articles/clat-2025-dates-application-syllabus-preparation-tips-nlus

Thank you

There are some around 3000 seats in all the NLUs. The last rank goes upto 9000 for a seat in an NLU even in tier 3 nlus. Considering your rank and your category, it will not be possible for you to get in any of the NLU.

Last year The opening and closing ranks for the general category for the B.A. LL.B. (Hons.) course were 656–1390, and for the OBC category they were 2068–2940. The closing ranks for the first and last rounds of the B.A. LL.B. (Hons.) course were 1233 and 1390, respectively.

BUT keep checking websites of each university on regular intervals. What generally happens is, students take admission and then they leave the university. This happens around a month after the admission. In such a case University calls up for individual applications. It is not necessary that the University will call up for next best rank to fill up the seat. So if you get such notification, apply right away.



Secondly, you don't need to be disheartened. You can join any private college for now or keep preparing for CLAT 2026. Since age is not the bar now, you can give CLAT any number of times.


All the best :)

GC-KA in the CLAT merit list refers to General Category - Karnataka. This classification indicates that the candidate belongs to the General Category and holds domicile from Karnataka. Many law universities have a state domicile reservation, meaning they reserve a certain percentage of seats for candidates who are residents of that state. If you fall under GC-KA, you are eligible to apply for seats under this quota. To claim the Karnataka domicile quota, it’s crucial to provide proper documentation during the application process. These documents typically include a domicile certificate, proof of residence, or any other government-issued document verifying your Karnataka residency. If your name appears under GC-KA, you must ensure you meet all requirements and deadlines for document verification to secure admission. This classification is essential as it impacts the seat allotment process for Karnataka candidates in NLU seats.

Hi Jaya,

Based on your OBC category rank of 4,700 in CLAT and your domicile in Kerala, securing admission to the National University of Advanced Legal Studies (NUALS) in Kochi may be challenging.

Historically, NUALS has had competitive cutoffs, especially for the BA LLB (Hons) program.

For instance, in the 2023 admissions cycle, the closing ranks for the BA LLB (Hons) program were as follows:

  • General (All India): 1,461
  • General (Home State): 1,769
  • OBC (Home State): 16,177

Although, admission trends vary each year due to factors like seat availability, applicant pool, and reservation policies. Hence, you can look for other potential options like -

1. National Law University, Assam (NLUJAA)

2. Hidayatullah National Law University, Raipur (HNLU)

3. Damodaram Sanjivayya National Law University, Visakhapatnam (DSNLU)

4. Tamil Nadu National Law University, Tiruchirappalli (TNNLU)

5. Government Law College, Ernakulam

You can get more information like Cutoff. Pattern, etc on the given link of which will redirect you the page of Careers360.

All the best!

https://law.careers360.com/articles/clat-cutoff

View All

Passage 1
Read the passage below and answer the following question.
Cheating is considered a criminal offence under the Indian Penal Code. It is done to gain profit or advantage from another person by using some deceitful means. The person who deceives another knows for the fact that it would place the other person in an unfair situation. Cheating as an offence can be made punishable under Section 420 of the IPC. Scope of Section 415 Cheating is defined under Section 415 of the Indian Penal Code as whoever fraudulently or dishonestly deceives a person to induce that person to deliver a property to any person or to consent to retain any property. If a person intentionally induces a person to do or omit to do any act which he would not have done if he was not deceived to do so and the act has caused harm to that person in body, mind, reputation, or property, then the person who fraudulently, dishonestly or intentionally induced the other person is said to cheat. Any dishonest concealment of facts that can deceive a person to do an act that he would not have done otherwise is also cheating within the meaning of this section. Essential Ingredients of Cheating requires · deception of any person. Fraudulently or dishonestly inducing that person to deliver any property to any person or to consent that any person shall retain any property; or · intentionally inducing a person to do or omit to do anything which he would not do or omit if he were not so deceived, and the act or omission causes or is likely to cause damage or harm to that person in body, mind, reputation or property.
Deceit– a tort arising from an untrue or false statement of facts which are made by a person, recklessly or knowingly, with an intention that it shall be acted upon by the other person, who would suffer damages as a result. 
Fraud – a false or untrue representation of the fact, that is made with the knowledge of its falsity or without the belief in its truth or a reckless statement that may or may not be true, with an intention to induce a person or individual to act independent of it with the result that the person acts on it and suffers damages and harm. In other words, it is a wrong act or criminal deception with an intention to result in financial or personal gain.
Question - 1 
D went to a moneylender, Z, for the loan. D intentionally pledges the gold article with Z taking the loan. D knows that the article is not made of gold. After a few days, D leaves the village. Decide.

 

Option: 1 None

Option: 2 None

Option: 3 None

Option: 4 None

Read the passage carefully and answer the question

The Contract should be performed by the promisor himself. However, in certain cases, it can also be performed by his agents or legal representatives. It all depends upon the intention of the parties. Normally a contract can be performed by the following persons. 

  1. Promisor himself: If from the nature of the contract it appears that it was the intention of the parties that the promise should be performed by the promisor himself, such promise must be performed by the promisor. This usually applies to contracts involving personal skill, task, or artwork. 
  2. Promisor or his Agent: Where the contract does not involve the personal skill of the promisor, the contract could be performed by the promisor himself or by any competent person employed by him for the purpose, 
  3. Legal Representatives: The contracts which do not involve any personal skill or taste, may be performed by his legal representative after the death of the promisor.
  4. Third Person: In some cases, a contract may be performed by a third person provided the promisee accepts the arrangement. According to Section 41 of the Indian Contract Act, once the promisee accepts the performance from a third person, he cannot compel the promisor to perform the contract again. 
  5. Performance of Joint Promises: According to section 42 of the Indian Contract Act, when two or more persons have made a joint promise, the joint promisors must fulfill the promise jointly during their lifetime. And if any one of them dies, then his legal representatives and survivors must jointly fulfill the promise. 

Section 43 of the Indian Contract Act further provides that unless a contrary intention appears from the contract, each joint promisor may compel every other joint promisor to contribute equally to the performance of the promise. If any joint promisor makes a default in such contribution, the remaining joint promisors must bear the loss arising from such default in equal shares.

Question:

Aman received a box of chocolates from Basant and promised to pay Rupees 5000. Later on, A becomes bankrupt. Chetan who is a friend of Aman pays rupees 1000 to Besant on behalf of Aman. Aman is not aware of such a transaction. In civil court, insolvency proceedings have started against Aman. Meanwhile, Basant has also applied for a recovery of 5000 rupees. Decide.

Option: 1

Basant is entitled to recover the amount of 5000 from Aman.


Option: 2

Basant is entitled to recover the amount of 4000 from Aman.


Option: 3

Chetan is entitled to recover the amount of 1000 from Basant.


Option: 4

Basant cannot recover any amount from Aman as he has become insolvent.


Read the passage carefully and answer the question

The Contract should be performed by the promisor himself. However, in certain cases, it can also be performed by his agents or legal representatives. It all depends upon the intention of the parties. Normally a contract can be performed by the following persons. 

  1. Promisor himself: If from the nature of the contract it appears that it was the intention of the parties that the promise should be performed by the promisor himself, such promise must be performed by the promisor. This usually applies to contracts involving personal skill, task, or artwork. 
  2. Promisor or his Agent: Where the contract does not involve the personal skill of the promisor, the contract could be performed by the promisor himself or by any competent person employed by him for the purpose, 
  3. Legal Representatives: The contracts which do not involve any personal skill or taste, may be performed by his legal representative after the death of the promisor.
  4. Third Person: In some cases, a contract may be performed by a third person provided the promisee accepts the arrangement. According to Section 41 of the Indian Contract Act, once the promisee accepts the performance from a third person, he cannot compel the promisor to perform the contract again. 
  5. Performance of Joint Promises: According to section 42 of the Indian Contract Act, when two or more persons have made a joint promise, the joint promisors must fulfill the promise jointly during their lifetime. And if any one of them dies, then his legal representatives and survivors must jointly fulfill the promise. 

Section 43 of the Indian Contract Act further provides that unless a contrary intention appears from the contract, each joint promisor may compel every other joint promisor to contribute equally to the performance of the promise. If any joint promisor makes a default in such contribution, the remaining joint promisors must bear the loss arising from such default in equal shares.

Question:

K promises to paint a picture for L on a certain day, at a certain price. K dies before the day of the contract. Decide. 

Option: 1

The contract can be enforced by K’s representative 


Option: 2

The contract can be enforced by L


Option: 3

The contract can be enforced either by K’s representation or by L 


Option: 4

The contract cannot be enforced either by K’s representative, or L


Read the passage carefully and answer the question

The Contract should be performed by the promisor himself. However, in certain cases, it can also be performed by his agents or legal representatives. It all depends upon the intention of the parties. Normally a contract can be performed by the following persons. 

  1. Promisor himself: If from the nature of the contract it appears that it was the intention of the parties that the promise should be performed by the promisor himself, such promise must be performed by the promisor. This usually applies to contracts involving personal skill, task, or artwork. 
  2. Promisor or his Agent: Where the contract does not involve the personal skill of the promisor, the contract could be performed by the promisor himself or by any competent person employed by him for the purpose, 
  3. Legal Representatives: The contracts which do not involve any personal skill or taste, may be performed by his legal representative after the death of the promisor.
  4. Third Person: In some cases, a contract may be performed by a third person provided the promisee accepts the arrangement. According to Section 41 of the Indian Contract Act, once the promisee accepts the performance from a third person, he cannot compel the promisor to perform the contract again. 
  5. Performance of Joint Promises: According to section 42 of the Indian Contract Act, when two or more persons have made a joint promise, the joint promisors must fulfill the promise jointly during their lifetime. And if any one of them dies, then his legal representatives and survivors must jointly fulfill the promise. 

Section 43 of the Indian Contract Act further provides that unless a contrary intention appears from the contract, each joint promisor may compel every other joint promisor to contribute equally to the performance of the promise. If any joint promisor makes a default in such contribution, the remaining joint promisors must bear the loss arising from such default in equal shares.

Question:

Rohan has agreed to manage the catering services during the marriage of Sohan’s son Ramu. On the day of marriage, Rohan felt ill and sent his manager to the management of catering services. Ramu happily gets married to Tina and people appreciated the food and decoration of the event. When Rohan asked Sohan for the remaining amount, he denied it because Rohan himself had not managed so it is a breach. Decide.

 

Option: 1

Rohan is not entitled to get the remaining amount due to a breach of contract.


Option: 2

Rohan is entitled to sue Sohan for the remaining amount.


Option: 3

Rohan is entitled to sue Ramu because it was his marriage.


Option: 4

Instead of Rohan, his manager can only sue Sohan for the breach.


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

Natural justice is another name for common sense justice rules of natural justice are not in codified form these principles are embedded or ingrained or inbuilt in the conscience of human beings. It supplies the omission made in codified law and helps in the administration of justice. Natural justice is not only confined to ‘fairness’ it will take many shades and colours based on the context. Thus natural justice apart from ‘fairness’ also implies reasonableness, equity and equality. They are neither cast in a rigid mould nor can they be put in a legal straitjacket. These principles written by nature in the heart of mankind, they are immutable, inviolable, and inalienable.

It is true that the concept of natural justice is not very clear and, therefore, it is not possible to define it; yet the principles of natural justice are accepted and enforced. In the case of Ridge V. Baldwin Court observed that “in modern times have sometimes been expressed to the effect that natural justice is as vague as to be practically meaningless. But I would regard these as tainted by the perennial fallacy that because something cannot be cut and dried or nicely weighed or measured therefore it does not exist”. The term natural justice signifies fundamental rules of judicial procedure and fair play in action. According to Lord Widgery “the principles of natural justice were those fundamental rules; the breach will prevent justice from being seen to be done”. Earliest expression of ‘natural justice’ could be found in the philosophical expression of Roman Jurist (jus natural) and signified rules and principles for the conduct of man which were independent of enacted law or customs and could be discovered by the rational intelligence of man and would grow out of and conform to his nature.

The rule against bias that surfaced in 1610 in Dr Bonham's Casewhere Chief Justice Coke went so far as to say that the Court could declare an Act of Parliament void if it made a man as judge in his own cause, or otherwise ‘against common right and reason’. This was one of his grounds for disallowing the claim of the College of Physicians to fine and imprison Doctor Bonham, a Doctor of Physics of Cambridge University, for practising in the city of London without the licence of College of Physicians. The statute under which the College acted provided that fines should go half to the King half to the College so that the College had a financial interest in its own judgement and was judged in its own cause.

Question:

X is a student of a college and his father Y is a professor in the same college. In one instance, X is caught to be involved in unparliamentary activities inside the college campus. The enquiry committee is set up and Y is appointed as the head of the committee. Decide.

Option: 1

Y is a professor of the same college hence he can become a member of the enquiry committee


Option: 2

Y is X’s father hence he should not be a part of the enquiry committee


Option: 3

Y can be a part of the enquiry committee but cannot be its head


Option: 4

There is no rule that prevents the appointment of Y until he fulfils his function diligently


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

Natural justice is another name for common sense justice rules of natural justice are not in codified form these principles are embedded or ingrained or inbuilt in the conscience of human beings. It supplies the omission made in codified law and helps in the administration of justice. Natural justice is not only confined to ‘fairness’ it will take many shades and colours based on the context. Thus natural justice apart from ‘fairness’ also implies reasonableness, equity and equality. They are neither cast in a rigid mould nor can they be put in a legal straitjacket. These principles written by nature in the heart of mankind, they are immutable, inviolable, and inalienable.

It is true that the concept of natural justice is not very clear and, therefore, it is not possible to define it; yet the principles of natural justice are accepted and enforced. In the case of Ridge V. Baldwin Court observed that “in modern times have sometimes been expressed to the effect that natural justice is as vague as to be practically meaningless. But I would regard these as tainted by the perennial fallacy that because something cannot be cut and dried or nicely weighed or measured therefore it does not exist”. The term natural justice signifies fundamental rules of judicial procedure and fair play in action. According to Lord Widgery “the principles of natural justice were those fundamental rules; the breach will prevent justice from being seen to be done”. Earliest expression of ‘natural justice’ could be found in the philosophical expression of Roman Jurist (jus natural) and signified rules and principles for the conduct of man which were independent of enacted law or customs and could be discovered by the rational intelligence of man and would grow out of and conform to his nature.

The rule against bias that surfaced in 1610 in Dr Bonham's Casewhere Chief Justice Coke went so far as to say that the Court could declare an Act of Parliament void if it made a man as judge in his own cause, or otherwise ‘against common right and reason’. This was one of his grounds for disallowing the claim of the College of Physicians to fine and imprison Doctor Bonham, a Doctor of Physics of Cambridge University, for practising in the city of London without the licence of College of Physicians. The statute under which the College acted provided that fines should go half to the King half to the College so that the College had a financial interest in its own judgement and was judged in its own cause.

Question:

Mr X is an employee of a corporate office. His wife Y is a judge. In one instance, X is found to be involved in a money laundering case at his office. The office now files a suit and Y is appointed as the judge for this case. Decide.

Option: 1

Y is a judge by herself, hence can be appointed to adjudicate this case


Option: 2

Y is can be appointed as a judge only if she fulfils her responsibilities without any bias


Option: 3

Y can adjudicate the case and if the company finds the penalty to be insufficient then they can appeal against it


Option: 4

Y cannot be the judge in this case ab initio


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

Natural justice is another name for common sense justice rules of natural justice are not in codified form these principles are embedded or ingrained or inbuilt in the conscience of human beings. It supplies the omission made in codified law and helps in the administration of justice. Natural justice is not only confined to ‘fairness’ it will take many shades and colours based on the context. Thus natural justice apart from ‘fairness’ also implies reasonableness, equity and equality. They are neither cast in a rigid mould nor can they be put in a legal straitjacket. These principles written by nature in the heart of mankind, they are immutable, inviolable, and inalienable.

It is true that the concept of natural justice is not very clear and, therefore, it is not possible to define it; yet the principles of natural justice are accepted and enforced. In the case of Ridge V. Baldwin Court observed that “in modern times have sometimes been expressed to the effect that natural justice is as vague as to be practically meaningless. But I would regard these as tainted by the perennial fallacy that because something cannot be cut and dried or nicely weighed or measured therefore it does not exist”. The term natural justice signifies fundamental rules of judicial procedure and fair play in action. According to Lord Widgery “the principles of natural justice were those fundamental rules; the breach will prevent justice from being seen to be done”. Earliest expression of ‘natural justice’ could be found in the philosophical expression of Roman Jurist (jus natural) and signified rules and principles for the conduct of man which were independent of enacted law or customs and could be discovered by the rational intelligence of man and would grow out of and conform to his nature.

The rule against bias that surfaced in 1610 in Dr Bonham's Casewhere Chief Justice Coke went so far as to say that the Court could declare an Act of Parliament void if it made a man as judge in his own cause, or otherwise ‘against common right and reason’. This was one of his grounds for disallowing the claim of the College of Physicians to fine and imprison Doctor Bonham, a Doctor of Physics of Cambridge University, for practising in the city of London without the licence of College of Physicians. The statute under which the College acted provided that fines should go half to the King half to the College so that the College had a financial interest in its own judgement and was judged in its own cause.

Question:

X was a renowned cricketer in the 1980s. His son Y is a struggling cricketer who has been trying to get into the national team for many years. In the year 2020, X is appointed as a member of the selection committee. In the match which is supposed to decide the final team of the nation, Y scores a century and Z scores 65 runs. However, Z is selected to represent India and Y is not. Y now appeals against the decision, the main ground being the presence of X in the committee. Decide.

Option: 1

The appeal will stand as Y scored a century yet Z was selected after scoring 65 runs


Option: 2

The appeal will be quashed since X’s presence should have benefitted Y, but it didn’t, hence the rejection of Y is valid


Option: 3

The appeal will stand as X’s presence is a factor of bias


Option: 4

The appeal will be quashed since X was a renowned cricketer


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

Natural justice is another name for common sense justice rules of natural justice are not in codified form these principles are embedded or ingrained or inbuilt in the conscience of human beings. It supplies the omission made in codified law and helps in the administration of justice. Natural justice is not only confined to ‘fairness’ it will take many shades and colours based on the context. Thus natural justice apart from ‘fairness’ also implies reasonableness, equity and equality. They are neither cast in a rigid mould nor can they be put in a legal straitjacket. These principles written by nature in the heart of mankind, they are immutable, inviolable, and inalienable.

It is true that the concept of natural justice is not very clear and, therefore, it is not possible to define it; yet the principles of natural justice are accepted and enforced. In the case of Ridge V. Baldwin Court observed that “in modern times have sometimes been expressed to the effect that natural justice is as vague as to be practically meaningless. But I would regard these as tainted by the perennial fallacy that because something cannot be cut and dried or nicely weighed or measured therefore it does not exist”. The term natural justice signifies fundamental rules of judicial procedure and fair play in action. According to Lord Widgery “the principles of natural justice were those fundamental rules; the breach will prevent justice from being seen to be done”. Earliest expression of ‘natural justice’ could be found in the philosophical expression of Roman Jurist (jus natural) and signified rules and principles for the conduct of man which were independent of enacted law or customs and could be discovered by the rational intelligence of man and would grow out of and conform to his nature.

The rule against bias that surfaced in 1610 in Dr Bonham's Casewhere Chief Justice Coke went so far as to say that the Court could declare an Act of Parliament void if it made a man as judge in his own cause, or otherwise ‘against common right and reason’. This was one of his grounds for disallowing the claim of the College of Physicians to fine and imprison Doctor Bonham, a Doctor of Physics of Cambridge University, for practising in the city of London without the licence of College of Physicians. The statute under which the College acted provided that fines should go half to the King half to the College so that the College had a financial interest in its own judgement and was judged in its own cause.

Question:

X is a married judge who is well known for his honesty in the entire city. He has a son Y. One fine day Y gets kidnapped and the kidnapper demands a sum of 20 lakhs from X. However, the kidnapper is caught by the police. X is now appointed as the judge for the hearing of the kidnapper. Decide.

Option: 1

X can be the judge since he can decide the punishment better as he was the sufferer


Option: 2

X cannot be the judge since there is a possibility that he will be biased while delivering the judgement


Option: 3

X can be the judge since he is renowned for his honesty and fulfil his duties


Option: 4

X can be the judge but his statement can be appealed against if delivered with bias


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

Natural justice is another name for common sense justice rules of natural justice are not in codified form these principles are embedded or ingrained or inbuilt in the conscience of human beings. It supplies the omission made in codified law and helps in the administration of justice. Natural justice is not only confined to ‘fairness’ it will take many shades and colours based on the context. Thus natural justice apart from ‘fairness’ also implies reasonableness, equity and equality. They are neither cast in a rigid mould nor can they be put in a legal straitjacket. These principles written by nature in the heart of mankind, they are immutable, inviolable, and inalienable.

It is true that the concept of natural justice is not very clear and, therefore, it is not possible to define it; yet the principles of natural justice are accepted and enforced. In the case of Ridge V. Baldwin Court observed that “in modern times have sometimes been expressed to the effect that natural justice is as vague as to be practically meaningless. But I would regard these as tainted by the perennial fallacy that because something cannot be cut and dried or nicely weighed or measured therefore it does not exist”. The term natural justice signifies fundamental rules of judicial procedure and fair play in action. According to Lord Widgery “the principles of natural justice were those fundamental rules; the breach will prevent justice from being seen to be done”. Earliest expression of ‘natural justice’ could be found in the philosophical expression of Roman Jurist (jus natural) and signified rules and principles for the conduct of man which were independent of enacted law or customs and could be discovered by the rational intelligence of man and would grow out of and conform to his nature.

The rule against bias that surfaced in 1610 in Dr Bonham's Casewhere Chief Justice Coke went so far as to say that the Court could declare an Act of Parliament void if it made a man as judge in his own cause, or otherwise ‘against common right and reason’. This was one of his grounds for disallowing the claim of the College of Physicians to fine and imprison Doctor Bonham, a Doctor of Physics of Cambridge University, for practising in the city of London without the licence of College of Physicians. The statute under which the College acted provided that fines should go half to the King half to the College so that the College had a financial interest in its own judgement and was judged in its own cause.

Question:

X and Y have been married for five years. X is a judge and Y is a doctor. X is pretty much unhappy with his married life so he wants to divorce Y. Y refuses to agree to a divorce by mutual consent hence X files a suit against Y. Decide.

Option: 1

X cannot file a suit since he is a judge


Option: 2

X can file a suit against Y in legal capacity but not as a judge


Option: 3

X cannot file a divorce suit against Y since there is no valid ground for divorce


Option: 4

X can proceed with mutual consent but not contested divorce


Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

In the case of M/S Halonex Limited, 59-A Noida vs State of U.P., it was held that “In reply to the aforesaid submission, learned counsel for opposite party no.2 submitted that the case of the applicants that no amount is due from their side to the complainant is a matter of defence which cannot be considered at this stage. It has been submitted that the term 'entrustment' as used in Section 405 IPC has been given a wider interpretation. It has been submitted that the goods returned by the complainant to the Company for replacement or for reimbursement would be deemed to have been entrusted to the Company and as the applicants 2 & 3 were handling its affair they become responsible. To buttress the said submission, the learned counsel for the complainant drew the attention of the Court to a decision of the Apex Court in the case of Ram Narayan Popli Vs. Central Bureau of Investigation: (2003) 3 SCC 641, wherein it was observed that: "the term "entrustment" is not necessarily a term of law. It may have different implications in different contexts. In its most general signification all it imports is the handing over possession for some purpose which may not imply the conferring of any proprietary right at all." Attention was also drawn to an observation made in the judgment of the aforesaid case, where it was observed that: "to establish the charge of criminal breach of trust, the prosecution is not obliged to prove the precise mode of conversion, misappropriation or misapplication by the accused of the property entrusted to him or over which he has dominion. The principal ingredient of the offence being dishonest misappropriation or conversion which may not ordinarily be a matter of direct proof, entrustment of property and failure in breach of an obligation to account for the property entrusted if proved, may, in the light of other circumstances, justifiably lead to an inference of dishonest misappropriation or conversion”.

Question:

X tracks down an expensive necklace on the road. Not knowing to whom it belongs. X sells it promptly to a jeweller without attempting to find the owner or submitting the necklace to the authorities. Decide the liability of X.

Option: 1

Extortion


Option: 2

Criminal breach of trust


Option: 3

Theft


Option: 4

Criminal misappropriation of Property


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