AIBE 21 SET D Question Paper PDF 2026 (OUT) with Solutions

AIBE 21 Question Paper SET D with Solutions – Free PDF

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Students can also check other sets of the AIBE 21 Question Paper 2026.

• AIBE 21 SET A Question Paper PDF
• AIBE 21 SET B Question Paper PDF
• AIBE 21 SET C Question Paper PDF

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AIBE 21 SET D 2026 Exam Analysis

Every year, the AIBE exam pattern could change a little. Nonetheless, AIBE SET D's overall structure remains consistent:

AIBE 21 SET D Section-wise Questions with Detailed Solutions

Given below is the AIBE 21 SET D Question Paper 2026 with Detailed Solutions.

1. The term "Public Interest Litigation (PIL)" was first used by:

(A) Prof. Abram Chayes
(B) Justice P.N. Bhagwati
(C) Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer
(D) Prof. Upendra Baxi

Correct Option: (A) Prof. Abram Chayes

Solution: The term Public Interest Litigation (PIL) was first coined by Prof. Abram Chayes in American legal literature. In India, the concept was later developed and expanded by the judiciary, particularly by Justice P.N. Bhagwati and Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer. Hence, option (A) is correct.

2. Statement: Section 5 of the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 gives a detailed procedure for fixing or revising minimum wages.

Conclusion I: If a date is specified in the notification, the minimum rates shall come into force from such date.
Conclusion II: If no date is specified, then they shall come into force from the expiry of three months from the date of issue of the notification.

(A) Both Conclusions I and II follow
(B) Only Conclusion I follows
(C) Only Conclusion II follows
(D) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows

Correct Option: (A) Both Conclusions I and II follow

Solution: Under Section 5 of the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, minimum wages become effective from the date specified in the notification. If no date is specified, they come into force after three months from the date of publication. Both conclusions correctly reflect the statutory provision. Hence, option (A) is correct.

3. Which of the following is included in the Central Government's power under Section 3(2)(ii) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?

(A) Planning and execution of a nation-wide programme for prevention and control of pollution
(B) Laying down standards for the quality of the environment
(C) Collection and dissemination of information relating to environmental pollution
(D) Carrying out and sponsoring environmental research

Correct Option: (C) Collection and dissemination of information relating to environmental pollution

Solution: Section 3(2)(ii) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 empowers the Central Government to collect and disseminate information relating to environmental pollution. The other options correspond to different clauses of Section 3(2). Therefore, option (C) is correct.

4. Under the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

I. Judicial review extends to constitutional amendments.
II. Laws inserted into the Ninth Schedule after 24 April 1973 remain open to scrutiny for violation of the Basic Structure.
III. Parliament's amending power under Article 368 is unlimited.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) I and II
(B) II and III
(C) I only
(D) I, II and III

Correct Option: (A) I and II

Solution: The Supreme Court in Kesavananda Bharati Judgment held that constitutional amendments are subject to judicial review. Further, in I.R. Coelho Judgment, laws inserted into the Ninth Schedule after 24 April 1973 were made reviewable. Parliament's power under Article 368 is not unlimited. Hence, option (A) is correct.

5. What do you mean by "onus probandi"?

(A) Burden of proof which places the responsibility on the party making an affirmative claim to substantiate it with evidence
(B) The fact to be proved in a case
(C) Actual evidence produced before the court
(D) Proof of mens rea in criminal cases

Correct Option: (A)

Solution: Onus probandi is a Latin expression meaning burden of proof. It places the responsibility on the party asserting a fact to establish it through admissible evidence. The principle determines which side must prove its claims before the court. Hence, option (A) is correct.

6. Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where a suit has abated due to failure to bring legal representatives on record within the prescribed time, the court may set aside such abatement if the plaintiff shows:

(A) Error apparent on the face of record
(B) Sufficient cause for not making the application within time
(C) Knowledge of death by the defendant
(D) That no decree has yet been passed

Correct Option: (B)

Solution: Under Order XXII of the CPC, a suit that has abated may be restored if the applicant establishes sufficient cause for not bringing the legal representatives on record within the prescribed period. The court exercises discretion based on the explanation offered. Hence, option (B) is correct.

7. According to Section 25(b) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, where the respondent fails to submit his statement of defence without sufficient cause, the arbitral tribunal shall:

(A) Terminate the proceedings
(B) Proceed to decide the dispute treating the claimant's case as uncontroverted
(C) Treat the claimant's allegations as admitted
(D) Adjourn the proceedings indefinitely

Correct Option: (B)

Solution: Section 25(b) provides that failure of the respondent to file a statement of defence does not automatically amount to admission of the claimant's allegations. The tribunal continues the proceedings and decides the dispute on the basis of available material. Hence, option (B) is correct.

8. Under the Parsi Marriage and Divorce Act, 1936, for what duration can maintenance be awarded?

(A) Maximum five years
(B) For a term not exceeding the life of the plaintiff
(C) Maximum ten years
(D) As determined solely by the Registrar

Correct Option: (B)

Solution: The Parsi Marriage and Divorce Act permits the court to grant maintenance for a period not exceeding the lifetime of the spouse entitled to receive it. The award remains subject to the court's discretion and surrounding circumstances. Hence, option (B) is correct.

9. The case of Parmanand Katara v. Union of India (1989) is primarily associated with which right?

(A) Right to speedy trial
(B) Right to life and personal liberty
(C) Right to emergency medical care
(D) Right to clean environment

Correct Option: (C) Right to emergency medical care

Solution: In Parmanand Katara v. Union of India, the Supreme Court held that preservation of human life is of paramount importance and every doctor has a duty to provide immediate medical aid to an injured person. The case recognized emergency medical treatment as part of Article 21. Hence, option (C) is correct.

10. Which of the following statements is not true with respect to Section 65B of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

(A) A Section 65B certificate is generally a condition precedent to admissibility.
(B) P.V. Anvar held that Section 65B is a complete code for electronic evidence.
(C) Navjot Sandhu permitted admission of electronic records without strict Section 65B compliance.
(D) Arjun Panditrao Khotkar is not the latest authoritative interpretation of Section 65B.

Correct Option: (D)

Solution: The decision in Arjun Panditrao Khotkar v. Kailash Kushanrao Gorantyal is the leading authority on Section 65B and reaffirmed the mandatory nature of the certificate requirement. Therefore, the statement denying its authoritative status is incorrect. Hence, option (D) is correct.